Nursing Elites

1. A client's daughter phones the charge nurse to report that the night nurse did not provide good care for her mother. What response should the nurse make?

• A. Explain that all staff are doing their best
• B. Ask for a description of what happened during the night
• C. Tell the daughter to talk to the unit's nurse manager
• D. Reassure the daughter that the mother will get better care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse in this situation is to ask for a description of what happened during the night. This allows the nurse to gather specific information about the care provided and address the complaint appropriately. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the concern by stating that all staff are doing their best does not address the specific complaint. Choice C is not the best immediate response as the charge nurse should first gather information before escalating the issue to the nurse manager. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on reassurance without addressing the reported issue.

2. The mother of an 8-year-old boy tells the nurse that he fell out of a tree and hurt his arm and shoulder. Which assessment finding is the most significant indicator of possible child abuse?

• A. The child looks at the floor when answering the nurse's questions
• B. The mother's version of the injury is different from the child's version
• C. The child has several abrasions on the chest and legs
• D. The mother refuses to answer questions about family history

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of possible child abuse, discrepancies between the accounts given by the child and the parent are critical indicators. This inconsistency could suggest that the injury was not accidental and may be a result of abuse. Looking at the floor while answering questions or having abrasions on the body can be concerning but are not as direct indicators of abuse as conflicting stories between the child and the parent.

3. A client complains of pain at the IV site. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the site is warm, red, and swollen. What is the most likely cause of these findings?

• A. Phlebitis
• B. Infiltration
• C. Allergic reaction
• D. Fluid overload

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Phlebitis. Phlebitis is the inflammation of a vein, often caused by irritation from an IV catheter, resulting in warmth, redness, and swelling at the site. Infiltration (choice B) refers to the leaking of IV fluids into the surrounding tissues, causing swelling and pallor, not redness and warmth like in the scenario described. An allergic reaction (choice C) would present with itching, hives, or anaphylaxis, rather than localized warmth, redness, and swelling. Fluid overload (choice D) typically manifests as generalized edema, shortness of breath, and weight gain, not localized symptoms at the IV site.

4. A client with a diagnosis of chronic heart failure is receiving digoxin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Take the medication with a high-fiber meal
• B. Monitor pulse rate daily before taking the medication
• C. Avoid dairy products while on this medication
• D. Discontinue the medication if blurred vision is experienced

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide is to monitor pulse rate daily before taking the medication. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia, so it is crucial to assess the pulse rate before administering the medication. This practice helps ensure that the heart rate is not too low for the safe use of digoxin. Choice A is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take digoxin with a high-fiber meal. Choice C is also incorrect because there is no need to avoid dairy products while on digoxin. Choice D is incorrect since blurred vision is not a common side effect of digoxin; hence, it is not the most critical instruction to provide.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Persistent cough
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

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