a client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Final Exam

1. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.

2. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduces gastric acid production. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid production, thereby helping to heal ulcers. While neutralizing stomach acid is associated with antacids, forming a protective barrier over ulcers is more characteristic of medications like sucralfate. The action described in choice D, increasing gastric mucus production, is not the primary mechanism of action of omeprazole in treating peptic ulcer disease.

3. In a community health setting, which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Substance abuse, particularly using shared inhalation equipment like needles and pipes for drug inhalation, significantly increases the risk of contracting HIV. Choice A, the 17-year-old with multiple sexual partners, poses a risk of HIV transmission through sexual contact, but it is lower compared to the direct risk associated with sharing drug paraphernalia. Choice B, the 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship, is at lower risk since being in a monogamous relationship reduces exposure to HIV. Choice D, the 45-year-old who received blood transfusions, is also at lower risk as blood transfusions are now screened for HIV, decreasing the likelihood of transmission through this route.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IM injection to an adult client. Which site is the preferred location for this injection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the preferred site for IM injections in adults due to its muscle mass and low risk of nerve injury. The deltoid muscle, although commonly used for vaccines in adults due to easy accessibility, has a smaller muscle mass making it less ideal for IM injections. The vastus lateralis muscle is typically used in infants and young children, not in adults. The dorsogluteal site has a higher risk of injury to the sciatic nerve and is no longer recommended for IM injections in any age group.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium level (choice A) is not typically affected by furosemide. Calcium level (choice C) and chloride level (choice D) are also not the primary focus of monitoring when a client is on furosemide for heart failure.

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