HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.
2. A new mother is at the clinic with her 4-week-old for a well-baby check-up. The nurse should tell the mother to anticipate that the infant will demonstrate which milestone by 2 months of age?
- A. Turns from side to back and returns
- B. Consistently returns smiles to mother
- C. Finds hands and plays with fingers
- D. Holds head up and supports weight with arms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because social smiling is a developmental milestone typically expected around 2 months of age. At this stage, infants start to engage more with their caregivers and show positive emotional responses. The other choices are incorrect. Choice A describes a motor skill that usually emerges later. Choice C involves more coordination and exploration, which is not typically seen by 2 months. Choice D relates to head control and arm strength, which also develop progressively but may not be fully achieved by 2 months.
3. Based on the documentation in the medical record, which action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Administer the rubella vaccine subcutaneously
- B. Observe the mother breastfeeding her infant
- C. Call the nursery for the infant's blood type result
- D. Administer Vicodin one tablet for pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the mother breastfeeding her infant. This action is essential to ensure that the infant is feeding well and to assess maternal-infant bonding. Administering the rubella vaccine subcutaneously (Option A) is not the immediate priority in this scenario as assessing breastfeeding is more crucial. Calling the nursery for the infant's blood type result (Option C) is premature and not the next appropriate step, as it does not address the immediate needs of the newborn. Administering Vicodin one tablet for pain (Option D) is not indicated without further assessment or indication of pain, making it an incorrect choice at this time.
4. The nurse observes that a male client's urinary catheter (Foley) drainage tubing is secured with tape to his abdomen and then attached to the bed frame. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Raise the bed to ensure the drainage bag remains off the floor
- B. Attach the drainage bag to the side rail instead of the bed frame
- C. Observe the appearance of the urine in the drainage tubing
- D. Secure the tubing to the client's gown instead of his abdomen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to secure the tubing to the client's gown instead of his abdomen. Securing the tubing to the client's abdomen can cause discomfort, trauma to the urethra, and increase the risk of infection. Attaching the drainage bag to the bed frame can lead to tension on the catheter, increasing the risk of dislodgement or trauma. Raising the bed does not address the issue of incorrect tubing securing. Observing the appearance of urine is important but secondary to ensuring proper tubing attachment.
5. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
- B. Avoid foods high in sodium
- C. Monitor fluid intake and adjust as needed
- D. Take the medication in the morning
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss as a side effect. By increasing potassium-rich foods, the client can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy. Choice B is incorrect because while limiting sodium intake is generally advisable for heart failure, it is not directly related to furosemide use. Choice C is incorrect because fluid intake should be monitored and adjusted based on the individual's condition, but setting a specific limit of 1 liter per day is not a standard recommendation. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to increased urination during the night.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access