HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. The mother of an 8-year-old boy tells the nurse that he fell out of a tree and hurt his arm and shoulder. Which assessment finding is the most significant indicator of possible child abuse?
- A. The child looks at the floor when answering the nurse's questions
- B. The mother's version of the injury is different from the child's version
- C. The child has several abrasions on the chest and legs
- D. The mother refuses to answer questions about family history
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of possible child abuse, discrepancies between the accounts given by the child and the parent are critical indicators. This inconsistency could suggest that the injury was not accidental and may be a result of abuse. Looking at the floor while answering questions or having abrasions on the body can be concerning but are not as direct indicators of abuse as conflicting stories between the child and the parent.
2. After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse’s immediate intervention? The client who is...
- A. Short of breath after a shower and has a hemoglobin of 8 grams
- B. Bleeding from a finger stick and has a prothrombin time of 30 seconds
- C. Febrile and has a WBC count of 14,000/mm3
- D. Trembling and has a glucose level of 50 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.
3. A client with cirrhosis is experiencing pruritus. Which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Administer antihistamines as prescribed
- B. Apply alcohol-based lotions to the skin
- C. Encourage frequent baths with hot water
- D. Limit fluid intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antihistamines as prescribed. Pruritus, or itching, is a common symptom in clients with cirrhosis. Antihistamines can help relieve itching by blocking the effects of histamine. Applying alcohol-based lotions (choice B) can further dry out the skin and exacerbate itching. Encouraging frequent baths with hot water (choice C) can also worsen pruritus by stripping the skin of natural oils. Limiting fluid intake (choice D) is not directly related to managing pruritus in cirrhosis.
4. A client is admitted with Atrial Fibrillation and is administered amiodarone (Cordarone). What therapeutic response should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Conversion of irregular heart rate to regular heart rhythm
- B. Pulse oximetry readings within normal range during activity
- C. Peripheral pulse points with adequate capillary refill
- D. Increase in exercise tolerance without shortness of breath
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Conversion of irregular heart rate to regular heart rhythm. Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to restore and maintain normal heart rhythm in clients with atrial fibrillation. It works by slowing down the electrical signals in the heart, helping to regulate the heartbeat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the therapeutic response expected from administering amiodarone in a client with atrial fibrillation. Pulse oximetry readings, peripheral pulses, capillary refill, and exercise tolerance are important assessments but are not the primary therapeutic goal of using amiodarone in this situation.
5. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
- B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
- C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
- D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.
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