HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. The mother of an 8-year-old boy tells the nurse that he fell out of a tree and hurt his arm and shoulder. Which assessment finding is the most significant indicator of possible child abuse?
- A. The child looks at the floor when answering the nurse's questions
- B. The mother's version of the injury is different from the child's version
- C. The child has several abrasions on the chest and legs
- D. The mother refuses to answer questions about family history
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of possible child abuse, discrepancies between the accounts given by the child and the parent are critical indicators. This inconsistency could suggest that the injury was not accidental and may be a result of abuse. Looking at the floor while answering questions or having abrasions on the body can be concerning but are not as direct indicators of abuse as conflicting stories between the child and the parent.
2. The client with hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications. What topic is most important?
- A. Stress management
- B. Salt intake reduction
- C. Regular physical activity
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Reducing salt intake is crucial for managing hypertension. Excessive salt consumption can lead to fluid retention, increasing blood pressure. While stress management, regular physical activity, and weight loss are beneficial for overall health, reducing salt intake is the most important lifestyle modification for controlling hypertension. Stress management may help reduce overall stress levels but does not directly impact blood pressure as salt intake does. Regular physical activity and weight loss can also benefit blood pressure control, but the immediate impact of reducing salt intake is more significant.
3. The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.
4. The healthcare provider reviews the laboratory results of a client whose serum pH is 7.38. What does this value imply about the client's homeostasis?
- A. Alkalosis
- B. Acidosis
- C. Normal serum pH
- D. Incompatible with life
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A pH of 7.38 falls within the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating that the client’s acid-base balance is adequately maintained. Choices A and B are incorrect as alkalosis and acidosis refer to abnormal pH levels. Choice D is incorrect as a pH of 7.38 within the normal range is compatible with life.
5. A client with hemorrhoids asks for information about a high fiber diet. Which breakfast menu items should the nurse suggest? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Raisin bran muffins
- B. Bowl of oatmeal
- C. Cup of raspberries
- D. Scrambled eggs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A high-fiber diet is beneficial for managing hemorrhoids as it helps maintain bowel regularity. Raisin bran muffins are a good choice for breakfast as they are high in fiber. Oatmeal is also a high-fiber option that aids digestion and prevents constipation. Raspberries are rich in fiber and contribute to a high-fiber diet. Scrambled eggs, on the other hand, are not high in fiber and do not provide the necessary fiber content needed for managing hemorrhoids.
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