an adult female client tells the nurse that though she is afraid her abusive boyfriend might one day kill her she keeps hoping that he will change wha
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health

1. An adult female client tells the nurse that though she is afraid her abusive boyfriend might one day kill her, she keeps hoping that he will change. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exploring the client's readiness to discuss the situation is the correct first step. It allows the nurse to assess the client's emotional state, willingness to seek help, and readiness to address the abusive relationship. This approach helps build trust and rapport with the client, paving the way for further interventions. Discussing treatment options for abusive partners (Choice A) may be premature and not well-received if the client is not ready to address the situation. Determining the frequency and type of abuse (Choice C) is important but not the immediate priority compared to assessing the client's readiness to talk. Reporting the finding to the police (Choice D) should be done if there is an immediate threat to the client's safety, but exploring the client's readiness to discuss the situation should be the initial step to provide support and intervention.

2. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours a day arranging and rearranging items in their room. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings is the most therapeutic intervention for a client with OCD spending excessive time on compulsive behaviors. By expressing their feelings, the client can explore the underlying anxiety that drives the compulsion. This intervention also provides an opportunity for the nurse to offer support and help the client develop coping strategies.\n Choice A, distracting the client with another activity, may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of the behavior.\n Choice B, allowing the client to continue the behavior, does not promote therapeutic progress and may perpetuate the compulsion.\n Choice C, setting a time limit for the behavior, may create additional stress for the client and does not address the underlying emotional issues associated with OCD.

3. A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed valproic acid (Depakote). What is the most important laboratory test for the LPN/LVN to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Monitoring liver function tests is crucial for clients prescribed valproic acid (Depakote) due to the medication's potential to affect liver function and increase the risk of liver toxicity. While kidney function tests (choice B), thyroid function tests (choice C), and complete blood count (choice D) are important in various clinical scenarios, the priority when administering valproic acid is to monitor liver function to prevent adverse effects associated with this medication.

4. A client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized on medication is being discharged from the hospital. What discharge teaching is most important for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Reinforcing the importance of adhering to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial for preventing relapse in clients with schizophrenia. Compliance with medication is essential in managing the symptoms and preventing a worsening of the condition. Choice B, recognizing early signs of relapse, is important but secondary to ensuring medication adherence. Choice C, follow-up appointments, is also important but not as critical as medication compliance immediately post-discharge. Choice D, maintaining a healthy lifestyle, is beneficial for overall health but is not as directly linked to preventing relapse in schizophrenia as medication adherence.

5. When a client with schizophrenia is being discharged on antipsychotic medication, what is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any unusual muscle movements immediately. These movements may indicate extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) or tardive dyskinesia, which are serious side effects of antipsychotic medications that require immediate attention. Choice A is incorrect because stopping the medication without medical advice can lead to a relapse of symptoms. Choice B is important but not as critical as monitoring for EPS. Choice D is incorrect because driving readiness is not directly related to antipsychotic medication instructions.

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