Nursing Elites

1. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly checks the locks on the doors. What is the best nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to discuss their fears.
• B. Limit the client's time for ritualistic behavior.
• C. Assist the client to complete the ritual faster.
• D. Prevent the client from engaging in the behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best nursing intervention when dealing with a client with OCD who repeatedly checks locks is to encourage the client to discuss their fears. This approach can help the client identify underlying anxiety triggers and work towards developing alternative coping mechanisms. Choice B, limiting the client's time for ritualistic behavior, may increase anxiety and worsen symptoms by creating a sense of urgency. Choice C, assisting the client to complete the ritual faster, does not address the underlying issues and may reinforce the behavior. Choice D, preventing the client from engaging in the behavior, can lead to increased anxiety and distress for the client.

2. The charge nurse is collaborating with the nursing staff about the plan of care for a client who is very depressed. What is the most important intervention to implement during the first 48 hours after the client's admission to the unit?

• A. Monitor appetite and observe intake during meals.
• B. Maintain safety in the client's environment.
• C. Provide ongoing, supportive contact.
• D. Encourage participation in activities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical intervention to implement during the first 48 hours after admitting a depressed client is to maintain safety (B). Depression increases the risk of suicide; hence ensuring a safe environment is the priority. While monitoring appetite (A), providing supportive contact (C), and encouraging participation in activities (D) are important aspects of care for a depressed client, ensuring safety takes precedence in the initial phase of admission.

3. A client diagnosed with undifferentiated schizophrenia is being discharged on aripiprazole (Abilify) 5 mg every night. When developing the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects, which of the following should the nurse include? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Headaches that will subside in a few weeks
• B. Transient mild anxiety
• C. Insomnia
• D. Torticollis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Torticollis. Common side effects of aripiprazole include headaches, mild anxiety, and insomnia. These side effects are manageable during treatment. Torticollis is not a common adverse effect associated with aripiprazole and is more commonly seen with other medications or conditions. Therefore, the nurse should not include torticollis in the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects of aripiprazole.

4. A female client with schizophrenia tells the nurse that she believes her brain is controlled by the CIA. The nurse recognizes this as which type of delusion?

• A. Somatic delusion
• B. Paranoid delusion
• C. Persecutory delusion
• D. Grandiose delusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persecutory delusion. Persecutory delusions involve beliefs of being conspired against, watched, or harassed by others, which is a common symptom in schizophrenia. In this scenario, the client's belief that her brain is controlled by the CIA aligns with persecutory delusions as she feels targeted or manipulated by an external entity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Somatic delusions involve false beliefs about one's body functions or sensations, paranoid delusions involve irrational suspicions and mistrust of others, and grandiose delusions involve exaggerated beliefs of one's importance or abilities.

5. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?

• A. Menstruation onset at age 9.
• B. Contraceptive method includes condoms only.
• C. Menstrual cycle occurs every 35 days.
• D. 'Black-out' after one drink last night on a date.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.

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