HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a medical diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. During the admission procedure, the client looks up and states, 'No, it's not MY fault. You can't blame me. I didn't kill him, you did.' What action is best for the nurse to take?
- A. Reassure the client by telling him that his fear of the admission procedure is to be expected.
- B. Tell the client that no one is accusing him of murder and remind him that the hospital is a safe place.
- C. Assess the content of the hallucinations by asking the client what he is hearing.
- D. Ignore the behavior and make no response at all to his delusional statements.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the content of the hallucinations by asking the client what he is hearing (C). Further assessment is needed to understand the nature of the client's delusions and hallucinations. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on reassuring the client about his fear, which is not addressing the underlying issue of the delusional statement. Choice B is incorrect as it argues with the client's delusion and offers false reassurance, which is not therapeutic. Choice D is incorrect as ignoring the behavior and making no response disregards the client's needs for assessment and support.
2. The client with schizophrenia believes the news commentator is her lover and speaks to her. What is the best response for the nurse to make?
- A. What do you believe the news commentator said to you?
- B. Let's switch to a different news channel.
- C. Is the news commentator planning to harm you or others?
- D. The news commentator is not communicating with you.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to ask the client what she believes the news commentator said, as it helps the nurse assess the client's perception and delve into her delusions without being confrontational. Choice B is not helpful in addressing the client's delusions. Choice C jumps to conclusions about potential harm without assessing the client's beliefs. Choice D is dismissive and does not address the client's reality.
3. A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia and exhibits apathy, lack of energy, and lack of interest in daily activities. The nurse should recognize that these symptoms are most likely due to which of the following?
- A. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
- B. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
- C. Side effects of antipsychotic medication.
- D. Symptoms of depression.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Apathy, lack of energy, and lack of interest in daily activities are negative symptoms of schizophrenia (A). Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include hallucinations and delusions (B). While antipsychotic medication side effects can sometimes cause lethargy or sedation (C), the scenario specifically describes negative symptoms. Depression can also cause similar symptoms (D), but in the context of schizophrenia, these are recognized as negative symptoms.
4. A client with Alzheimer's disease is becoming increasingly agitated and combative in the late afternoon. What is the most appropriate intervention?
- A. Offer a sedative medication to calm the client.
- B. Encourage the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment.
- C. Use reality orientation to reduce confusion.
- D. Engage the client in physical activity to reduce agitation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment is the most appropriate intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease who is becoming agitated and combative in the late afternoon. This approach helps reduce agitation and prevent overstimulation, providing a calming and soothing environment for the client. Offering a sedative medication (Choice A) should be avoided as it may have side effects and should only be considered as a last resort. Reality orientation (Choice C) may increase confusion and distress in clients with advanced Alzheimer's disease. Engaging the client in physical activity (Choice D) could potentially escalate the agitation rather than reduce it in this scenario.
5. A moderately depressed client who was hospitalized 2 days ago suddenly begins smiling and reporting that the crisis is over. The client says to a nurse, 'I'm finally cured.' The LPN/LVN interprets this behavior as a cue to modify the treatment plan by:
- A. Suggesting a reduction of medication
- B. Allowing increased 'in-room' activities
- C. Increasing the level of suicide precautions
- D. Allowing the client off-unit privileges as needed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A sudden improvement in mood and declaring being cured can be warning signs of a decision to attempt suicide. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to increase the level of suicide precautions to ensure the safety of the client. This can involve closer monitoring and restriction of items that could be harmful. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not address the potential risk of suicide that may be present with the sudden change in behavior.
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