Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

• A. Describes life as without purpose.
• B. Exhibits an increase in sweating.
• C. States is often fatigued and drowsy.
• D. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Expressing that life is without purpose can indicate deepening depression or suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. While sweating, fatigue, drowsiness, nausea, and loss of appetite can be side effects of duloxetine (Cymbalta), they do not indicate the same level of urgency as a statement suggesting deepening depression or suicidal ideation.

2. On admission assessment, the nurse is obtaining subjective data about a client's sexual and reproductive status. The client states, 'I don't want to discuss this; it's private and personal.' Which response by the LVN/LPN is the most therapeutic?

• A. I'd hate being asked these sorts of questions too, but it's a necessary part of providing you with the best care.
• B. This is difficult for you to speak about, but I need this information from you in order to perform a complete assessment.
• C. I am a professional registered nurse, and, as such, I'll have you know that all your information is certainly kept confidential.
• D. I know that some of these questions are difficult for you, but, as a professional nurse, I am obligated to respect your confidentiality.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is D. Respecting the client's privacy while acknowledging the difficulty of the situation and explaining the professional obligation to maintain confidentiality is the most therapeutic approach. This response shows empathy, understanding, and a commitment to confidentiality, which can help build trust and encourage the client to open up. Choices A, B, and C do not effectively address the client's concerns or emphasize the importance of confidentiality in a sensitive manner, making them less therapeutic responses in this situation.

3. The nurse should hold the next scheduled dose of a client's haloperidol (Haldol) based on which assessment finding(s)?

• A. Dizziness when standing.
• B. Shuffling gait and hand tremors.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Fever of 102°F.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever (D) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal complication of antipsychotics. The healthcare provider should be contacted before administering the next dose of Haldol. Dizziness when standing (A), shuffling gait and hand tremors (B), and urinary retention (C) are all adverse effects of Haldol that, while concerning, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential severity of NMS indicated by a fever.

4. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends hours checking and rechecking the locks on the doors. What is the best nursing intervention?

• A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
• B. Encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior.
• C. Prevent the client from checking the locks to break the cycle.
• D. Schedule specific times for the client to check the locks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best nursing intervention for a client with OCD who spends excessive time checking locks is to encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior. By exploring the underlying anxiety and triggers, the client can gain insight and work towards behavior modification. Choice A is incorrect because enabling the behavior does not address the underlying issues. Choice C is incorrect as it may lead to increased anxiety and distress. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the root cause of the behavior.

5. A teenaged client, a heroin addict, is admitted to the unit for detoxification. What intervention is most important for the nurse to initiate during the first 24 hours after admission?

• A. Assign the client to a teen support group.
• B. Assess intake and output.
• C. Monitor for wheezing and apnea.
• D. Limit visitors to family members only.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing intake and output is crucial during the first 24 hours after admission for detoxification. This helps the nurse monitor the client's hydration status and kidney function as the body goes through withdrawal from heroin. Option A is incorrect because joining a support group is beneficial but may not be the priority in the initial phase of detoxification. Option C, monitoring for wheezing and apnea, is important but not the most critical intervention during the first 24 hours. Option D, limiting visitors to family members only, is not directly related to the immediate needs of assessing intake and output.

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