Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

• A. Describes life as without purpose.
• B. Exhibits an increase in sweating.
• C. States is often fatigued and drowsy.
• D. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Expressing that life is without purpose can indicate deepening depression or suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. While sweating, fatigue, drowsiness, nausea, and loss of appetite can be side effects of duloxetine (Cymbalta), they do not indicate the same level of urgency as a statement suggesting deepening depression or suicidal ideation.

2. On admission to a residential care facility, an elderly female client tells the nurse that she enjoys cooking, quilting, and watching television. Twenty-four hours after admission, the nurse notes that the client is withdrawn and isolated. It is best for the nurse to encourage this client to become involved in which activity?

• A. Clean the unit kitchen cabinets.
• B. Participate in a group quilting project.
• C. Watch television in the activity room.
• D. Bake a cake for a resident's birthday.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Peer interaction in a group activity (B) such as participating in a group quilting project will help to prevent social isolation and withdrawal. This will provide the elderly client with an opportunity to engage with others, share experiences, and feel a sense of belonging. Choices (A, C, and D) are activities that can be accomplished alone, without peer interaction, which may not effectively address the client's feelings of withdrawal and isolation.

3. A female client with obsessive compulsive personality disorder is admitted to the hospital for a cardiac catheterization. The afternoon before the procedure, the client begins to keep detailed notes of the nursing care she is receiving and reports her findings to the RN at bedtime. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Explain to the client that her behavior invades the rights of the nursing staff.
• B. Ask the client to explain why she is keeping a detailed record of her nursing care.
• C. Teach the client strategies to control her obsessive compulsive behavior.
• D. Encourage the client to express her feelings regarding the upcoming procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to express her feelings can help address underlying anxieties and may reduce the need for obsessive behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because it may come across as confrontational and could escalate the situation. Choice B is not the best initial action as it focuses on the behavior rather than the client's emotions. Choice C is premature without first addressing the client's emotional needs.

4. During discharge planning for a male client with schizophrenia who insists on returning to his apartment despite being informed to move to a boarding home, what is the most important nursing diagnosis?

• A. Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.
• B. Ineffective coping related to inadequate support.
• C. Social isolation related to difficult interactions.
• D. Self-care deficit related to cognitive impairment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important nursing diagnosis for discharge planning in this scenario is 'Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.' The client's insistence on returning to his apartment despite being informed otherwise indicates a form of denial, possibly due to anxiety about the situational change. Focused discharge planning should address this denial and the underlying anxiety to ensure a smooth transition. Choices B, C, and D are not as relevant in this context as the primary issue lies in the client's denial and anxiety regarding the change in living arrangements, rather than coping, social interactions, or self-care deficits.

5. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Encourage the client to perform facial exercises.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
• D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.

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