HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI Practice Questions
1. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?
- A. Describes life as without purpose.
- B. Exhibits an increase in sweating.
- C. States is often fatigued and drowsy.
- D. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Expressing that life is without purpose can indicate deepening depression or suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. While sweating, fatigue, drowsiness, nausea, and loss of appetite can be side effects of duloxetine (Cymbalta), they do not indicate the same level of urgency as a statement suggesting deepening depression or suicidal ideation.
2. A client sought counseling after trying to rescue a neighbor involved in a house fire. Despite the client's efforts, the neighbor died. Which action does the nurse engage in with the client during the working phase of the nurse-client relationship?
- A. Exploring the client's ability to function
- B. Exploring the client's potential for self-harm
- C. Inquiring about the client's perception of appraisal of the neighbor's death
- D. Inquiring about and examining the client's feelings that may block adaptive coping
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the working phase of the nurse-client relationship, it is crucial for the nurse to inquire about and examine the client's feelings that may hinder adaptive coping. This helps the client process the traumatic event, explore their emotional responses, and identify any barriers to moving forward effectively. Exploring the client's ability to function (Choice A) may be more relevant in the assessment phase, while exploring the client's potential for self-harm (Choice B) is important but may not be the primary focus at this stage. Inquiring about the client's perception of the neighbor's death (Choice C) is valuable, but addressing feelings blocking adaptive coping is essential for therapeutic progress.
3. A client is admitted to a medical nursing unit with a diagnosis of acute blindness. Many tests are performed, and there seems to be no organic reason why this client cannot see. The client became blind after witnessing a hit-and-run car accident, when a family of three was killed. A LPN/LVN suspects that the client may be experiencing a:
- A. Psychosis
- B. Repression
- C. Conversion Disorder
- D. Dissociative Disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's acute blindness without any organic cause following a traumatic event indicates a case of Conversion Disorder. Conversion Disorder involves the manifestation of physical symptoms due to psychological stressors. Psychosis (choice A) involves a loss of contact with reality, which is not evident here. Repression (choice B) is a defense mechanism that involves unconsciously blocking out thoughts. Dissociative Disorder (choice D) involves disruptions in memory, awareness, identity, or perception, which is not the primary issue in this case.
4. A 52-year-old male client in the intensive care unit who has been oriented suddenly becomes disoriented and fearful. Assessment of vital signs and other physical parameters reveal no significant change, and the nurse formulates the diagnosis, 'Confusion related to ICU psychosis.' Which intervention would be best to implement?
- A. Move all machines away from the client's immediate area.
- B. Attempt to allay the client's fears by explaining the etiology of his condition.
- C. Cluster care so that brief periods of rest can be scheduled during the day.
- D. Extend visitation times for family and friends.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In critical care environments, stressors can lead to isolation and confusion. Providing the client with scheduled rest periods (C) can help alleviate these symptoms. Moving all machines away (A) is impractical as they are often essential. Explaining the condition (B) may not be effective during acute confusion. Extending visitation times (D) can be overwhelming for the client in the ICU.
5. A 20-year-old female client with schizophrenia is scheduled to receive risperidone (Risperdal) 2mg at bedtime. When the nurse attempts to administer the medication, the client states, 'I am not going to take that medicine, and you can't make me.' What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the medication via a nasogastric tube.
- B. Substitute an injectable form of the medication.
- C. Encourage the client to take the medicine because it will help her sleep.
- D. Document in the client's record that the medication was refused.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is to respect the client's autonomy and decision-making capacity. It's crucial to document the medication refusal accurately in the client's record. Administering the medication via a nasogastric tube or substituting it with an injectable form would violate the client's right to refuse treatment and should only be considered in extreme cases after consulting with the healthcare team. Encouraging the client to take the medication because it will help her sleep disregards her autonomy and choice in the matter.
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