Nursing Elites

1. A school nurse is called to the soccer field because a child has a nosebleed (epistaxis). In what position should the nurse place the child?

• A. Sitting up and leaning forward
• B. Reclining with head elevated
• C. Sitting up with head tilted back
• D. Lying flat on the back

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct position for a child with a nosebleed (epistaxis) is sitting up and leaning forward. This position helps prevent blood from flowing into the throat and causing choking. Choice B, reclining with the head elevated, and choice D, lying flat on the back, are incorrect as they can cause blood to flow backward into the throat. Choice C, sitting up with the head tilted back, is also incorrect as it can lead to blood flowing down the back of the throat and potentially into the airway.

2. When a UAP reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats per minute, what action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds.
• B. Determine if the UAP also measured the client's capillary refill time.
• C. Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical radial pulse deficit is present.
• D. Notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume. A weak pulse with bradycardia (pulse rate of 44 beats per minute) requires immediate follow-up to investigate potential underlying issues. In this situation, it is crucial to involve the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention. Instructing the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds (Choice A) may delay necessary actions. Determining capillary refill time (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing a weak pulse, and assigning an LPN to assess an apical radial pulse deficit (Choice C) is not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider.

3. An older male client is admitted to the mental health unit with a sudden onset of global disorientation and is continuously conversing with his mother, who died 50 years ago. The nurse reviews the multiple prescriptions the client is currently taking and assesses his urine specimen, which is cloudy, dark yellow, and has a foul odor. These findings suggest that this client is experiencing which condition?

• A. Psychotic episode
• B. Dementia
• C. Delirium
• D. Depression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, delirium. The sudden onset of global disorientation along with cloudy, dark yellow urine with a foul odor are indicative of delirium. Delirium is an acute condition characterized by a fluctuating disturbance in awareness and cognition. In this case, the symptoms are suggestive of an underlying physiological cause, such as infection or medication side effects. Choice A, psychotic episode, is less likely as the symptoms are more in line with delirium than a primary psychotic disorder. Choice B, dementia, is a chronic and progressive condition, not typically presenting with sudden onset disorientation. Choice D, depression, does not align with the acute cognitive changes and urine abnormalities described in the scenario.

4. Two days after an abdominal hysterectomy, an elderly female with diabetes has a syncopal episode. The nurse determines that her vital signs are within normal limits, but her blood sugar is 325 mg/dL or 18.04 mmol/L (SI). What intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer regular insulin per sliding scale
• B. Cancel the client's dinner tray
• C. Give the client 4 ounces (120 mL) of orange juice
• D. Administer the next scheduled dose of metformin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the nurse should implement the intervention of administering regular insulin per sliding scale. High blood sugar levels, as indicated by a reading of 325 mg/dL, require insulin administration to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia. Canceling the client's dinner tray (choice B) would not address the immediate need to lower the blood sugar level. Giving the client orange juice (choice C) might further increase the blood sugar level as it contains sugar. Administering the next scheduled dose of metformin (choice D) is not appropriate as metformin is not typically used for acute management of high blood sugar levels.

5. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that a client’s blood pressure cannot be measured because the client has casts on both arms and is unable to be turned to the prone position for blood pressure measurement in the legs. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Advise the UAP to document the last blood pressure obtained on the client's graphic sheet
• B. Estimate the blood pressure by assessing the pulse volume of the client’s radial pulses
• C. Demonstrate how to palpate the popliteal pulse with the client supine and the knee flexed
• D. Document why the blood pressure cannot be accurately measured at the present time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client cannot have their blood pressure measured due to specific circumstances such as casts on both arms, the nurse should document the reason why the blood pressure cannot be obtained accurately. This documentation is crucial for maintaining a clear record of the client's condition and for continuity of care. Advising the UAP to document the last blood pressure obtained (Choice A) does not address the current inability to measure the blood pressure. Estimating the blood pressure by assessing the pulse volume of radial pulses (Choice B) is not a reliable method for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings. Demonstrating how to palpate the popliteal pulse (Choice C) is irrelevant in this situation as it does not provide a solution for accurately measuring the blood pressure.

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