HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. A primigravida at 36 weeks gestation who is RH-negative experienced abdominal trauma in a motor vehicle collision. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Fetal heart rate at 162 beats per minute
- B. Mild contractions every 10 minutes
- C. Trace of protein in the urine
- D. Positive fetal hemoglobin testing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Positive fetal hemoglobin testing' (D). Positive fetal hemoglobin testing (Kleihauer-Betke test) indicates fetal-maternal hemorrhage, which is critical in an RH-negative mother due to the risk of isoimmunization. This condition can lead to sensitization of the mother's immune system against fetal blood cells, potentially causing hemolytic disease of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial for appropriate management and interventions. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this scenario. While monitoring fetal heart rate and contractions is important, the detection of fetal-maternal hemorrhage takes precedence due to the serious implications it poses for the current and future pregnancies of an RH-negative mother.
2. Which of the following statements is true of Down’s syndrome?
- A. Down’s syndrome is usually caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 in an individual.
- B. The symptoms of Down’s syndrome are similar to those of sickle-cell anemia.
- C. Down’s syndrome is caused by a sexually transmitted infection (STI) during conception.
- D. The probability of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with the age of the parents.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The likelihood of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases as the age of the parents increases, particularly the mother's age. Choice A is incorrect because Down’s syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, not a defect in the sex chromosomes. Choice B is incorrect as the symptoms of Down’s syndrome and sickle-cell anemia are different. Choice C is also incorrect as Down’s syndrome is not caused by a sexually transmitted infection during conception.
3. A client who is 5 days postpartum is being taught about signs of effective breastfeeding. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Feeling a tugging sensation when the baby is sucking
- B. Expecting the baby to have two to three wet diapers in a 24-hour period
- C. The baby’s urine should appear dark and concentrated
- D. The breast should stay firm after the baby breastfeeds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Feeling a tugging sensation while the baby is sucking indicates an effective latch and milk transfer during breastfeeding. This sensation means that the baby is effectively drawing milk from the breast. Choice B is incorrect because infants should ideally have six to eight wet diapers in a 24-hour period to show adequate hydration. Choice C is incorrect as a dark and concentrated urine may indicate dehydration, which is not a sign of effective breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect as the breast should soften after the baby breastfeeds, indicating that the baby has effectively emptied the breast of milk.
4. Which drug was marketed in the 1960s to pregnant women and caused birth defects such as missing or stunted limbs in infants?
- A. Progestin
- B. Estrogen
- C. Thalidomide
- D. Oxytocin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Thalidomide is the correct answer. Thalidomide was a drug marketed in the 1960s to pregnant women as a sedative and anti-nausea medication but tragically led to severe birth defects, including limb deformities, when taken during pregnancy. Progestin (Choice A) and Estrogen (Choice B) are hormones that are not associated with causing birth defects like Thalidomide. Oxytocin (Choice D) is a hormone that plays a role in labor and breastfeeding and is not known to cause birth defects like Thalidomide.
5. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Urine Ketones
- B. Rapid plasma reagin
- C. Prothrombin time
- D. Urine culture
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Urine ketones should be anticipated as a laboratory test for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum because it helps assess the severity of dehydration and malnutrition, which are common complications of this condition. Choice B, rapid plasma reagin, is a test for syphilis and is not relevant to hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, prothrombin time, is a measure of blood clotting function and is not typically indicated for hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice D, urine culture, is used to identify bacteria in the urine and is not directly related to assessing dehydration and malnutrition in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum.
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