Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching about clomiphene citrate to a client who is experiencing infertility. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Urinary Frequency
• C. Breast Tenderness
• D. Chills

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Breast Tenderness.' Clomiphene citrate is known to cause breast tenderness as a common side effect due to its hormonal effects on the body. Tinnitus (choice A), which is a ringing in the ears, is not typically associated with clomiphene citrate. Urinary frequency (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of this medication. Chills (choice D) are also not commonly linked to clomiphene citrate use.

2. Which of the following is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder whose onset is in middle age?

• A. Tay-Sachs disease
• B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
• C. Hemophilia
• D. Huntington’s disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Huntington's disease is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder characterized by progressive nerve cell degeneration in the brain. It typically manifests in middle age with symptoms such as involuntary movements, cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances. Tay-Sachs disease (Choice A) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the nervous system in early childhood, not middle age. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Choice B) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects muscle function and usually presents in early childhood. Hemophilia (Choice C) is a genetic disorder related to blood clotting, and its onset is not typically in middle age.

3. A charge nurse is teaching a group of staff nurses about fetal monitoring during labor. Which of the following findings should the charge nurse instruct the staff members to report to the provider?

• A. Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds
• B. Contraction frequency of 2 to 3 minutes apart
• C. Absent early deceleration of fetal heart rate
• D. Fetal heart rate is 140/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds are prolonged, indicating uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and requires immediate intervention. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial to ensure timely management and prevent adverse outcomes. Choice B, contraction frequency of 2 to 3 minutes apart, is within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absent early deceleration of fetal heart rate, is a reassuring finding suggesting fetal well-being. Choice D, a fetal heart rate of 140/min, is also normal for a fetus and does not typically require immediate reporting unless it deviates significantly from the baseline or is accompanied by other concerning signs.

4. When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective?

• A. Dilation of the cervix.
• B. Descent of the fetus to –2 station.
• C. Rupture of the amniotic membranes.
• D. Increase in bloody show.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the first stage of labor, effective uterine contractions lead to cervical dilation. Dilation of the cervix is a key indicator that uterine contractions are progressing labor. Descent of the fetus to -2 station (Choice B) is related to the fetal position in the pelvis and not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness. Rupture of the amniotic membranes (Choice C) signifies the rupture of the fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus and does not directly reflect uterine contraction effectiveness. An increase in bloody show (Choice D) can be a sign of impending labor, but it is not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness.

5. A client is preparing to administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg orally to a client who is 2 hr postpartum and has a boggy uterus. For which of the following assessment findings should the nurse withhold the medication?

• A. Blood pressure 142/92 mm Hg
• B. Urine output 100 mL in 1 hr
• C. Pulse 58/min
• D. Respiratory rate 14/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methylergonovine can increase blood pressure, so it should be withheld if the client has hypertension. A blood pressure reading of 142/92 mm Hg indicates hypertension and is a contraindication for administering methylergonovine. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and not contraindications for administering this medication. Urine output, pulse rate, and respiratory rate are not factors that determine the appropriateness of administering methylergonovine in this situation.

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