Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure proper functioning of the chest tube?

• A. Clamp the chest tube intermittently.
• B. Keep the drainage system below chest level.
• C. Empty the drainage chamber every 4 hours.
• D. Apply sterile gauze around the insertion site daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure proper functioning of a chest tube, the nurse should keep the drainage system below chest level. This position allows for proper drainage by gravity and prevents backflow into the pleural space. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage chamber every 4 hours is important but not directly related to maintaining the chest tube's function. Applying sterile gauze around the insertion site daily is essential for infection prevention but does not specifically ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube.

2. A client in respiratory distress who is on oxygen is being cared for by a nurse. What is the most appropriate short-term goal?

• A. Nasal cannula remains in place
• B. Client completes morning care
• C. Client verbalizes breathing improvement after lunch
• D. Client maintains oxygen saturation of 90% during the shift

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because maintaining oxygen saturation of 90% is a specific, measurable short-term goal that ensures adequate oxygenation. Choice A is not a goal focused on the client's physiological status but rather on the equipment. Choice B is related to activities of daily living and does not address the respiratory distress issue. Choice C is subjective and may not reflect the actual physiological improvement in the client's condition.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking warfarin. The nurse notes that the client has a new prescription for amoxicillin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Amoxicillin can potentiate the effects of warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) is crucial in this situation to assess the client's clotting ability. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because amoxicillin's interaction with warfarin does not directly impact serum potassium, serum sodium, or blood glucose levels.

4. A nurse in a provider’s office is interviewing a client who is requesting an oral contraceptive. Which of the following findings in the client’s history is a contraindication to the use of combination oral contraceptives?

• A. Thyroid disease
• B. Allergy to penicillin
• C. Impaired liver function
• D. Abnormal blood glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Impaired liver function is a contraindication to combination oral contraceptives. The liver metabolizes hormones, and any impairment can affect the metabolism of hormones, potentially leading to imbalances or toxicity. Thyroid disease, allergy to penicillin, and abnormal blood glucose levels are not contraindications to combination oral contraceptives.

5. A client has been prescribed metformin. What should be included in the teaching?

• A. It can cause weight gain
• B. Take it with food
• C. It is an insulin
• D. Monitor for hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take metformin with food. This is important to minimize gastrointestinal side effects and improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as metformin is not typically associated with weight gain. Choice C is wrong as metformin is not an insulin but a medication that helps control blood sugar levels. Choice D is also incorrect as metformin is not known to cause hyperglycemia.

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