ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage frequent ambulation
- B. Administer lorazepam
- C. Provide a low-calorie diet
- D. Administer insulin as prescribed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is to administer lorazepam. Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly used to manage the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal by preventing seizures and reducing agitation and anxiety. Encouraging frequent ambulation (choice A) may not be safe during alcohol withdrawal due to potential instability and confusion. Providing a low-calorie diet (choice C) is not a priority during alcohol withdrawal, as the focus is on managing withdrawal symptoms. Administering insulin as prescribed (choice D) is unrelated to managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
2. A nurse in the telemetry unit is receiving the laboratory findings for an adult male client who is being treated for a myocardial infarction. Which of the following is an expected finding for the client?
- A. Troponin I (TnI) 8 ng/mL
- B. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) 10 ng/L
- C. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 45 units/L
- D. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) 75 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Troponin I is a specific marker for myocardial infarction, and levels of 8 ng/mL are elevated, indicating heart muscle damage. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is more related to heart failure rather than myocardial infarction, making choice B incorrect. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is a liver enzyme and not specific to myocardial infarction, so choice C is incorrect. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is a type of cholesterol and is not typically used to diagnose or monitor myocardial infarction, making choice D incorrect.
3. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Inspect the pin site every 4 hours
- B. Monitor the client’s skin under the halo vest
- C. Ensure two personnel hold the halo device when repositioning the client
- D. Apply powder frequently to the client’s skin under the vest to decrease itching
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client’s skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because inspecting the pin site every 4 hours is necessary but not the priority in this case. Choice C is incorrect as it is not essential for two personnel to hold the halo device during repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can actually increase the risk of skin issues by clogging pores and causing irritation.
4. A postpartum client's fundus is firm, 3 cm above the umbilicus, and displaced to the right. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
- A. Massage the fundus
- B. Administer oxytocin
- C. Assist the client to void then reassess the fundus
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a postpartum client with a firm, displaced fundus is to assist the client to void then reassess the fundus. Displacement of the uterus to the right is often a sign of bladder distention, which can prevent the uterus from contracting properly and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. By helping the client to void, the nurse can alleviate the bladder distention, allowing the uterus to contract effectively. Massaging the fundus (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of bladder distention. Administering oxytocin (Choice B) is not indicated without assessing and addressing the cause of the displacement. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is premature before implementing initial nursing interventions to address the potential cause of the displaced fundus.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.
- A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
- B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
- C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
- D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.
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