Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The contractions are occurring every 45 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180 beats/min. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Increase the oxytocin infusion
• B. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
• C. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When contractions occur every 45 seconds with a high fetal heart rate, it indicates uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress. In this situation, the oxytocin infusion should be discontinued immediately to prevent further complications. Increasing or maintaining the infusion would worsen the hyperstimulation and distress. Decreasing the infusion may not be sufficient to address the current situation and could still lead to complications.

2. A client is being taught how to use a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse.
• B. I will remove the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with my finger.
• C. I will not apply mineral oil on the diaphragm.
• D. I will place 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before inserting it.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client should place spermicide inside the diaphragm before insertion to enhance contraceptive effectiveness. It is recommended to leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, but not more than 24 hours. Choice A is incorrect because the diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours, not 4 hours. Choice B is incorrect as the diaphragm should be removed by hooking the rim below the dome, not above. Choice C is incorrect because mineral oil should not be used with the diaphragm as it can weaken the latex.

3. A charge nurse on a med-surg unit is preparing to delegate tasks to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). What task should the charge nurse delegate to the LPN?

• A. Initiate a care plan.
• B. Perform a complex wound dressing change.
• C. Administer an oral antibiotic to a patient.
• D. Complete an initial assessment.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct task that the charge nurse should delegate to the LPN is to administer an oral antibiotic to a patient. LPNs are trained and permitted to administer medications orally under the supervision of a registered nurse. Initiating a care plan (Choice A) and completing an initial assessment (Choice D) are tasks that typically require higher-level nursing education and critical thinking skills, which are more suitable for registered nurses. Performing a complex wound dressing change (Choice B) involves specialized skills and assessment that are often within the scope of practice of registered nurses or wound care specialists.

4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed prednisone. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Blood glucose levels
• B. Serum potassium levels
• C. Liver function tests
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prednisone is known to cause hyperglycemia by increasing blood glucose levels. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage any potential hyperglycemic effects of prednisone. While prednisone can also affect serum potassium levels and liver function, the priority monitoring parameter in this case is blood glucose levels. Monitoring heart rate is not directly associated with prednisone administration, making it a less relevant parameter to monitor in this scenario.

5. A nurse on the medical-surgical unit is receiving reports on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who is receiving warfarin and has an INR of 3.3
• B. A client who has acute kidney injury, creatinine 4 mg/dL, and BUN 52 mg/dL
• C. A client who had an NG tube inserted 6 hours ago and has abdominal distention
• D. A client who is 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports fullness in the throat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client who is 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports fullness in the throat should be assessed first. This client may be experiencing airway obstruction due to hematoma or swelling, making it a priority. Options A, B, and C have concerning findings as well, but airway compromise takes precedence over other issues.

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