ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?
- A. I cannot change my instructions once they are made
- B. My doctor will need to approve my advance directives
- C. I need an attorney to witness my signature on the advance directives
- D. I have the right to refuse treatment
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement indicates an understanding of advance directives because advance directives allow individuals to express their treatment preferences, including the right to refuse treatment if they choose to do so. Choice A is incorrect because individuals can update or change their advance directives as needed. Choice B is incorrect because advance directives are based on the individual's preferences, not the doctor's approval. Choice C is incorrect as witnessing an advance directive typically requires a witness who is not an attorney, depending on the state's specific requirements.
2. A client who has been prescribed oral contraception receives education from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further education?
- A. If I miss one pill, I'll take it as soon as possible
- B. If I miss two pills, I'll double up for two days
- C. If I miss three pills, I'll double up each day until back on schedule
- D. I'll use an alternative form of contraception if I miss more than two pills
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct course of action after missing oral contraceptive pills depends on how many pills are missed. If three pills are missed, the client should not 'double up' but rather follow the manufacturer's instructions and use an alternative form of contraception until the next cycle. Taking too many pills at once increases the risk of side effects without restoring contraceptive protection. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate understanding of the correct actions to take after missing a pill or two, emphasizing the importance of not doubling up but following specific guidelines to maintain effectiveness and safety.
3. A nurse is caring for a client in preterm labor who is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which of the following is an indication of magnesium toxicity?
- A. Blood glucose of 160 mg/dL
- B. Urine output of 20 mL/hour
- C. Systolic BP of 140 mm Hg
- D. Respiratory rate of 20/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine output of 20 mL/hour. Urine output below 30 mL/hour is a sign of magnesium toxicity due to the risk of accumulation in the body. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of magnesium toxicity. Elevated blood glucose, systolic blood pressure, and normal respiratory rate are not specific signs of magnesium toxicity.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving education on foot care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply lotion between the toes.
- B. Cut toenails straight across.
- C. Use a heating pad to warm the feet.
- D. Soak feet in warm water daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cut toenails straight across. This instruction is vital for clients with diabetes as it helps prevent ingrown toenails and infections, reducing the risk of foot ulcers. Applying lotion between the toes (choice A) should be avoided as it can create a moist environment prone to fungal infections. Using a heating pad (choice C) can lead to burns or injuries due to reduced sensation common in diabetes. Soaking feet in warm water daily (choice D) can also increase the risk of skin breakdown and should be avoided.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure proper functioning of the chest tube?
- A. Clamp the chest tube intermittently.
- B. Keep the drainage system below chest level.
- C. Empty the drainage chamber every 4 hours.
- D. Apply sterile gauze around the insertion site daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To ensure proper functioning of a chest tube, the nurse should keep the drainage system below chest level. This position allows for proper drainage by gravity and prevents backflow into the pleural space. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage chamber every 4 hours is important but not directly related to maintaining the chest tube's function. Applying sterile gauze around the insertion site daily is essential for infection prevention but does not specifically ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access