Nursing Elites

1. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Hypertension
• C. Pruritus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is experiencing negative symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Delusions
• C. Flat affect
• D. Paranoia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flat affect. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia involve deficits in normal emotional responses or other thought processes. These symptoms include a flat affect (reduced emotional expression), social withdrawal, and avolition (lack of motivation). Hallucinations and delusions are characteristic of positive symptoms, which involve the presence of abnormal behaviors or experiences. Paranoia is more associated with delusions rather than negative symptoms.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?

• A. Sunken anterior fontanel
• B. Tenting skin turgor
• C. Flat anterior fontanel
• D. Hyperpnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.

4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Heart rate
• C. Temperature
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. Sildenafil, a medication for erectile dysfunction, can cause changes in blood pressure. The nurse should monitor for hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring heart rate (choice B) is not a priority when administering sildenafil unless there are pre-existing heart conditions. Temperature (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are typically not directly affected by sildenafil administration, making them less relevant for monitoring in this case.

5. A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change-of-shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. Client placed in restraints for aggressive behavior
• B. A new client with a history of a 4.5 kg weight loss in the past two months
• C. Client who received a PRN dose of haloperidol 2 hours ago for increased anxiety
• D. Client who will be receiving his first ECT treatment today

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client in restraints due to aggressive behavior needs immediate assessment to ensure safety and well-being. The nurse should assess this client first to address any potential risks, such as circulation issues, skin integrity problems, and ongoing agitation. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate safety concerns that require urgent assessment compared to a client restrained for aggressive behavior.

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