Nursing Elites

1. During an abdominal assessment for an adult client, what is the correct sequence of steps?

• A. Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate
• B. Palpate, Percuss, Inspect, Auscultate
• C. Auscultate, Inspect, Percuss, Palpate
• D. Percuss, Palpate, Inspect, Auscultate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence for an abdominal assessment in an adult client is to first Inspect the abdomen for any visible abnormalities, then Auscultate to listen for bowel sounds, followed by Percussion to assess for organ size and presence of fluid or masses, and finally Palpation to feel for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choice A, 'Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate,' is the correct sequence for an abdominal assessment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the recommended sequence of assessment. Palpation should be the last step as it can potentially alter bowel sounds and percussion findings if done before. This deviation can lead to missing important findings or inaccurate assessment results.

2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
• B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
• D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the client who has new onset dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. This sudden dyspnea could indicate a serious complication like a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with a low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important concerns but are not as immediately life-threatening as potential pulmonary embolism indicated by sudden dyspnea postoperatively.

3. UAP has lowered the head of the bed to change the linens for a client who is bedridden. Which observation...most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. A feeding is infusing at 40 mL/hr through an enteral feeding tube.
• B. The urine meter attached to the urinary drainage bag is completely full.
• C. There is a large dependent loop in the client's urinary drainage tubing.
• D. Purulent drainage is present around the insertion site of the feeding tube.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Purulent drainage around the insertion site of the feeding tube indicates an infection, which requires immediate attention. This may be a sign of a serious complication that needs prompt nursing intervention to prevent further complications or deterioration in the client's condition. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate threat to the client's health. While option A highlights the infusion rate of the feeding, it does not pose an immediate risk compared to the presence of purulent drainage indicating infection.

4. A client with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is seeking advice on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. What action should the nurse recommend?

• A. Plan meals with low carbohydrates and high protein
• B. Engage in strenuous activity for an hour daily
• C. Keep a record of daily food and beverage intake
• D. Participate in a group exercise class three times a week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping a food diary is an essential practice when starting a weight loss plan as it helps in tracking calorie intake, identifying eating patterns, and making informed decisions about dietary changes. Planning meals with low carbohydrates and high protein (Choice A) can be beneficial for some individuals, but keeping a food diary is more foundational. Engaging in strenuous daily activity (Choice B) may not be sustainable for everyone and could lead to burnout or injuries. Participating in a group exercise class (Choice D) is beneficial for fitness but may not address dietary habits, which are crucial for weight loss.

5. The nurse is discharging an adult woman who was hospitalized for 6 days for treatment of pneumonia. While the nurse is reviewing the prescribed medications, the client appears anxious. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Instruct the client to repeat the medication plan
• B. Encourage the client to take a PRN antianxiety drug
• C. Provide written instructions that are easy to follow
• D. Include a family member in the teaching session

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Including a family member in the teaching session is the most important action for the nurse to implement in this scenario. By involving a family member, the nurse can ensure that there is additional support and reinforcement of the medication plan. This can help the client and family better understand and adhere to the prescribed medications, reducing the client's anxiety. Instructing the client to repeat the medication plan (Choice A) may not address the client's anxiety effectively. Encouraging the client to take a PRN antianxiety drug (Choice B) should not be the first intervention without exploring other supportive measures. Providing written instructions (Choice C) alone may not offer the immediate support and reassurance needed for the anxious client.

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