HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI
1. During an abdominal assessment for an adult client, what is the correct sequence of steps?
- A. Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate
- B. Palpate, Percuss, Inspect, Auscultate
- C. Auscultate, Inspect, Percuss, Palpate
- D. Percuss, Palpate, Inspect, Auscultate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct sequence for an abdominal assessment in an adult client is to first Inspect the abdomen for any visible abnormalities, then Auscultate to listen for bowel sounds, followed by Percussion to assess for organ size and presence of fluid or masses, and finally Palpation to feel for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choice A, 'Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate,' is the correct sequence for an abdominal assessment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the recommended sequence of assessment. Palpation should be the last step as it can potentially alter bowel sounds and percussion findings if done before. This deviation can lead to missing important findings or inaccurate assessment results.
2. Which toy is most appropriate for an 18-month-old child?
- A. A pull toy
- B. A puzzle with large pieces
- C. A book with large pictures
- D. A doll with small clothes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A pull toy is the most appropriate choice for an 18-month-old child. At this age, children are developing their motor skills and coordination, and a pull toy can help with these aspects by encouraging movement and coordination. Puzzle with large pieces (Choice B) may pose a choking hazard for a child of this age due to small parts. While a book with large pictures (Choice C) can be engaging and beneficial for language development, a pull toy is more suitable for promoting physical development in an 18-month-old. A doll with small clothes (Choice D) is not ideal for this age group as small parts can be a choking hazard.
3. The client has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place for decompression. What action should the LPN/LVN take to maintain patency of the NG tube?
- A. Irrigate the tube with normal saline every shift.
- B. Check the tube placement by auscultation.
- C. Secure the tube to the client's gown.
- D. Flush the tube with 5 mL of sterile water before and after medication administration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To maintain patency of the NG tube, it is essential to irrigate the tube with normal saline every shift. This action helps prevent clogging and ensures that the tube remains clear for effective decompression. Checking tube placement by auscultation (Choice B) is important for verifying correct placement but does not directly impact patency. Securing the tube to the client's gown (Choice C) is crucial for safety and comfort but is not directly related to maintaining patency. Flushing the tube with sterile water before and after medication administration (Choice D) is not the recommended method for maintaining patency of an NG tube, as normal saline is the appropriate solution for this purpose.
4. A client requires a 24-hour urine collection. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine."
- B. "I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago."
- C. "I flushed what I urinated at 7 a.m. and have saved all urine since."
- D. "I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because for a 24-hour urine collection, the first void is discarded, and all subsequent urine should be saved. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements do not contribute to a urine collection. Choice B indicates a single specimen rather than continuous collection over 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as it incorrectly suggests rushing the test by drinking excessively.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client’s medications. They include cimetidine and imipramine. Knowing that cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, the healthcare professional should identify that this combination is likely to result in which of the following effects?
- A. Decreased therapeutic effects of cimetidine
- B. Increased risk of imipramine toxicity
- C. Decreased risk of adverse effects of cimetidine
- D. Increased therapeutic effects of imipramine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, it leads to an increased concentration of imipramine in the body, which can result in imipramine toxicity. This increased risk of toxicity is the likely effect of this drug interaction. Choice A is incorrect because cimetidine's effect on imipramine metabolism does not impact the therapeutic effects of cimetidine. Choice C is incorrect because the interaction does not decrease the risk of adverse effects of cimetidine. Choice D is incorrect as the increased concentration of imipramine can lead to toxicity, not increased therapeutic effects.
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