Nursing Elites

1. During an abdominal assessment for an adult client, what is the correct sequence of steps?

• A. Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate
• B. Palpate, Percuss, Inspect, Auscultate
• C. Auscultate, Inspect, Percuss, Palpate
• D. Percuss, Palpate, Inspect, Auscultate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence for an abdominal assessment in an adult client is to first Inspect the abdomen for any visible abnormalities, then Auscultate to listen for bowel sounds, followed by Percussion to assess for organ size and presence of fluid or masses, and finally Palpation to feel for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choice A, 'Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate,' is the correct sequence for an abdominal assessment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the recommended sequence of assessment. Palpation should be the last step as it can potentially alter bowel sounds and percussion findings if done before. This deviation can lead to missing important findings or inaccurate assessment results.

2. When admitting a client with an abdominal wound, which precaution should be taken?

• A. Contact precautions
• B. Droplet precautions
• C. Airborne precautions
• D. Standard precautions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When admitting a client with an abdominal wound, contact precautions should be implemented. Contact precautions are used to prevent the spread of infections that are spread by direct or indirect contact. In the case of abdominal wounds, bacteria and pathogens can easily be transmitted through contact with the wound or wound drainage. Droplet precautions are used for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Airborne precautions are used for infections spread through the air, like tuberculosis. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the spread of infections and should be followed in addition to specific precautions based on the type of infection.

3. A client has a prescription for 5 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin to mix together and administer subcutaneously. Determine the correct order of steps for this procedure.

• A. Inject 5 units of air into the bottle of regular insulin
• B. Withdraw the correct dose of NPH insulin from the bottle
• C. Inject 10 units of air into the bottle of NPH insulin
• D. Withdraw the correct dose of regular insulin from the bottle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct order of steps for this procedure is to first inject air into the NPH insulin bottle to prevent vacuum formation. After injecting air into the NPH insulin, the next step is to withdraw the correct dose of regular insulin from its bottle. This sequence ensures that the regular insulin is drawn after the NPH insulin, preventing contamination and ensuring accurate dosing. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because air should be injected into the NPH insulin first, not the regular insulin, and the doses should be withdrawn in the appropriate order to maintain the integrity and potency of each insulin type.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

5. A patient has damage to the cerebellum. Which disorder is most important for the nurse to assess?

• A. Impaired balance
• B. Hemiplegia
• C. Muscle sprain
• D. Lower extremity paralysis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the cerebellum is damaged, it leads to impaired balance. The cerebellum plays a crucial role in coordinating movements and maintaining balance. Therefore, assessing the patient's balance is essential in determining the extent of cerebellar damage. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because hemiplegia refers to paralysis of one side of the body, muscle sprain is a soft tissue injury, and lower extremity paralysis involves loss of function in the lower limbs. These conditions are not directly associated with damage to the cerebellum.

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