HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. The client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?
- A. Potassium
- B. Sodium
- C. Calcium
- D. Magnesium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! When a client is taking furosemide (Lasix), monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the potential for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Low potassium levels can predispose the client to cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by furosemide to the same extent as potassium, making them less critical to monitor in this scenario.
2. When a healthcare professional makes an initial assessment of a client who is post-op following gastric resection, the client's NG tube is not draining. The healthcare professional's attempt to irrigate the tube with 10ml of 0.9% NaCl was unsuccessful, so they determine that the tube was obstructed. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Attempt to irrigate the tube with a larger volume of saline.
- C. Replace the NG tube with a new one.
- D. Reposition the client to see if that helps the tube drain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: If an NG tube is obstructed and cannot be irrigated successfully, notifying the healthcare provider is the appropriate action to take for further management. This is crucial as the healthcare provider may need to assess the situation, provide guidance, or intervene with specific interventions. Attempting to irrigate the tube with a larger volume of saline (Choice B) may exacerbate the situation if the tube is truly obstructed. Replacing the NG tube with a new one (Choice C) should not be the initial action unless advised by the healthcare provider. Repositioning the client (Choice D) may not necessarily resolve the tube obstruction and should not be the primary intervention in this scenario.
3. A client is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider about reducing the adverse effects of immobility. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will perform ankle and knee exercises every hour - Range of motion (ROM) is needed to prevent contractures.
- B. I will hold my breath when rising from a sitting position.
- C. I will remove my antiembolic stockings while I am in bed.
- D. I will have my partner help me change positions every 4 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because performing ankle and knee exercises every hour helps prevent contractures and other adverse effects of immobility. Contractures are a common complication of immobility, and range of motion (ROM) exercises can help maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures. This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Holding the breath when rising from a sitting position can increase the risk of orthostatic hypotension, not reduce adverse effects of immobility. Removing antiembolic stockings while in bed can compromise their effectiveness in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is not a measure to reduce immobility-related complications. Having a partner help change positions every 4 hours may not be frequent enough to prevent immobility-related complications effectively; changing positions more frequently is usually recommended to prevent issues like pressure ulcers and muscle stiffness.
4. Following surgery on the neck, the client asks the LPN why the head of the bed is up so high. The LPN should tell the client that the high-Fowler position is preferred for what reason?
- A. To reduce strain on the incision
- B. To promote drainage of the wound
- C. To provide stimulation for the client
- D. To reduce edema at the operative site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The high-Fowler position is preferred after neck surgery to reduce edema at the operative site. Elevating the head of the bed promotes venous return and drainage, aiding in decreasing swelling and fluid accumulation, which helps reduce edema at the operative site. Choice A is incorrect as the main purpose is not solely about reducing strain on the incision. Choice B is incorrect because while drainage may occur, it is not the primary reason for maintaining the high-Fowler position. Choice C is incorrect as providing stimulation is not the primary rationale for positioning the client in high-Fowler.
5. A 15-year-old client has been placed in a Milwaukee Brace. Which statement from the adolescent indicates the need for additional teaching?
- A. I will only have to wear this for 6 months.
- B. I should inspect my skin daily.
- C. The brace will be worn day and night.
- D. I can take it off when I shower.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The statement 'I will only have to wear this for 6 months' indicates a need for additional teaching because the Milwaukee Brace is typically worn for 12-18 months, not just 6 months. Choice B is correct as inspecting the skin daily is important to prevent skin breakdown. Choice C is correct as the brace is usually worn day and night for effectiveness. Choice D is correct as the brace can be removed when showering to maintain hygiene.
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