Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving morphine via PCA infusion device after abdominal surgery. Which of the following statements indicates that the client knows how to use the device?

• A. I'll wait to use the device until it's absolutely necessary.
• B. I'll be careful about pushing the button too much to avoid an overdose.
• C. I should tell the nurse if the pain doesn't stop while I am using this device.
• D. I will ask my adult child to push the dose button when I am sleeping.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because it demonstrates that the client understands the importance of communicating with the nurse if the pain persists while using the PCA device. This is crucial as it ensures proper pain management and monitoring. Choices A and B are incorrect because delaying the use of the device until necessary or being cautious about pushing the button too much do not necessarily reflect understanding of using the PCA device effectively. Choice D is incorrect as having someone else, like an adult child, push the dose button goes against the principle of the client self-administering the medication through the PCA device.

2. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

• A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
• B. Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
• C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
• D. Glascow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When documenting a client in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing, the nurse should document the Glasgow Coma Scale score to assess the level of consciousness and the regularity of respirations. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it does not provide a specific assessment like the Glasgow Coma Scale score. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 indicates a more alert state than described in the scenario.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Hourly urine output
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
• D. Temperature every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.

4. The patient has been diagnosed with a spinal cord injury and needs to be repositioned using the logrolling technique. Which technique will the healthcare team use for logrolling?

• A. Involve at least three to four people.
• B. Instruct the patient not to reach for the opposite side rail when turning.
• C. Move the bottom part of the patient’s torso first and then the top part.
• D. Use pillows for support before turning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique for logrolling involves at least three to four people to ensure the safety and proper alignment of the patient's spine. Logrolling requires coordinated effort from multiple individuals to prevent twisting or bending of the spine, hence option A is correct. Option B is incorrect as patients with spinal cord injuries should not be instructed to reach for the opposite side rail due to the risk of causing harm. Option C is incorrect as moving the bottom part of the patient's torso first could lead to spinal misalignment. Option D is incorrect as pillows should be used for support and comfort after the patient has been successfully turned, not before.

5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Gingival hyperplasia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.

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