Nursing Elites

1. A nurse overhears a colleague informing a client that he will administer her medication by injection if she refuses to swallow her pills. The nurse should recognize that the colleague is committing which of the following torts?

• A. Defamation - harming someone's reputation through false statements.
• B. Malpractice - professional negligence or misconduct.
• C. Assault - threatening to cause harm to someone.
• D. Battery - intentional harmful or offensive physical contact.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the colleague's action of informing the client that he will administer medication by injection if she refuses to swallow her pills constitutes assault. Assault is the act of threatening harm that causes fear of imminent harm. It does not involve physical contact but rather the apprehension of an imminent harmful or offensive act. Defamation, choice A, is incorrect as it involves harming someone's reputation through false statements. Malpractice, choice B, is also incorrect as it refers to professional negligence or misconduct in performing duties. Battery, choice D, is not the correct answer as it involves intentional harmful or offensive physical contact with the person.

2. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old 2 hours after tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which of the following assessments must be reported immediately?

• A. Vomiting of dark emesis
• B. Complaints of throat pain
• C. Apical heart rate of 110
• D. Increased restlessness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Increased restlessness must be reported immediately as it may indicate bleeding or other complications post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. This could be a sign of a developing issue that requires urgent intervention. Vomiting of dark emesis, complaints of throat pain, and an apical heart rate of 110 are important to monitor but do not indicate an immediate need for reporting as compared to the potential seriousness of increased restlessness in this scenario.

3. A client is contemplating retirement and expresses uncertainty about wanting to retire. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Let’s talk about how the change in your job status will affect you.
• B. Have you considered the financial implications of retirement?
• C. What are your thoughts on retirement and how it may impact your life?
• D. Would you like to discuss potential activities you could engage in during retirement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choosing option A, 'Let’s talk about how the change in your job status will affect you,' is the most appropriate response in this scenario. By discussing how retirement might affect the client, the nurse can address the client's concerns and emotions about the impending change. Option B, 'Have you considered the financial implications of retirement?' is not the best response as it focuses solely on financial aspects and does not address the client's emotional readiness for retirement. Option C, 'What are your thoughts on retirement and how it may impact your life?' is more open-ended and may not address the immediate concerns of the client expressing uncertainty. Option D, 'Would you like to discuss potential activities you could engage in during retirement?' assumes the client is certain about retiring and focuses on activities rather than addressing the client's feelings of uncertainty.

4. A client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to include?

• A. Monitor the client for pain in the suprapubic region.
• B. Ensure the client is free of metal objects.
• C. Administer 240 mL (8 oz) of oral contrast before the procedure.
• D. Assist the client with a bowel cleansing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include before an intravenous pyelogram is ensuring the client is free of metal objects. Metal objects can interfere with the imaging procedure and may need to be removed to prevent artifacts. Monitoring for pain in the suprapubic region (choice A) is not directly related to the procedure and is not a standard pre-procedure action. Administering oral contrast (choice C) is more common for other imaging studies like a CT scan, not an intravenous pyelogram. Assisting with a bowel cleansing (choice D) is not typically required before an intravenous pyelogram.

5. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

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