Nursing Elites

1. A nurse overhears a colleague informing a client that he will administer her medication by injection if she refuses to swallow her pills. The nurse should recognize that the colleague is committing which of the following torts?

• A. Defamation - harming someone's reputation through false statements.
• B. Malpractice - professional negligence or misconduct.
• C. Assault - threatening to cause harm to someone.
• D. Battery - intentional harmful or offensive physical contact.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the colleague's action of informing the client that he will administer medication by injection if she refuses to swallow her pills constitutes assault. Assault is the act of threatening harm that causes fear of imminent harm. It does not involve physical contact but rather the apprehension of an imminent harmful or offensive act. Defamation, choice A, is incorrect as it involves harming someone's reputation through false statements. Malpractice, choice B, is also incorrect as it refers to professional negligence or misconduct in performing duties. Battery, choice D, is not the correct answer as it involves intentional harmful or offensive physical contact with the person.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer medications to a client. Which of the following client identifiers should the healthcare professional use to ensure medication safety?

• A. Ask the client to state their full name.
• B. Ask the client for their date of birth.
• C. Compare the client's wristband with the medication administration record.
• D. Ask the client for their room number.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Comparing the client's wristband with the medication administration record is a crucial step in ensuring medication safety. The wristband typically contains unique identifiers such as the client's name, date of birth, and medical record number, which should be cross-checked with the medication administration record to confirm the correct patient. Asking the client to state their name (Choice A) or date of birth (Choice B) may not be as reliable as the information can be misunderstood or miscommunicated. Asking for the room number (Choice D) is not a reliable client identifier for medication administration and does not confirm the patient's identity accurately.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a history of congestive heart failure. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Shortness of breath on exertion
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in a week
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs are concerning because they indicate pulmonary congestion, a serious complication of congestive heart failure. The presence of crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, requiring immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress and worsening heart failure. While shortness of breath on exertion, weight gain, and orthopnea are common signs and symptoms of heart failure, crackles specifically point to acute pulmonary edema or worsening congestion, making them the most concerning finding in this scenario.

4. What instruction should the nurse provide for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA who has a prescription for contact precautions?

• A. Allow visitors with precautions in place
• B. Wear sterile gloves when handling the client's body fluid
• C. Have the client wear a mask whenever someone enters the room
• D. Don a gown and gloves when entering the room

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA under contact precautions is to don a gown and gloves when entering the room. Wearing a gown and gloves is necessary to prevent the transmission of MRSA. Choice A is incorrect because visitors may be allowed with proper precautions in place. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client has body fluid precautions, which is not specified. Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the UAP's protective measures but rather focuses on the client wearing a mask.

5. The nurse assesses a client who has a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. To assess for skin damage related to the cannula, which areas should the nurse observe?

• A. Tops of the ears
• B. Bridge of the nose
• C. Around the nostrils
• D. Over the cheeks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is using a nasal cannula for oxygen therapy, the areas prone to skin damage are the tops of the ears and around the nostrils. The pressure exerted by the cannula on these areas can lead to skin breakdown, so it is important for the nurse to observe these sites for any signs of damage. The correct answer is 'Tops of the ears.' Choices 'Bridge of the nose' and 'Over the cheeks' are not typically areas where skin damage related to the cannula would occur, making them incorrect choices.

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