Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with swelling and pain in the left leg. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Apply warm compresses to the affected leg.
• B. Elevate the left leg above the level of the heart.
• C. Measure the circumference of the left leg.
• D. Administer pain medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Measuring the circumference of the left leg is the most appropriate action for an LPN/LVN when assessing a client with a history of DVT and presenting with swelling and pain in the left leg. This measurement helps to assess the extent of swelling objectively and monitor changes in the client's condition. Applying warm compresses (Choice A) may worsen the condition by potentially promoting clot development. Elevating the left leg above the level of the heart (Choice B) is generally recommended for DVT to improve venous return, but measuring the circumference is more appropriate in this scenario. Administering pain medication (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue and should not be the initial action taken.

2. During an abdominal assessment for an adult client, what is the correct sequence of steps?

• A. Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate
• B. Palpate, Percuss, Inspect, Auscultate
• C. Auscultate, Inspect, Percuss, Palpate
• D. Percuss, Palpate, Inspect, Auscultate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence for an abdominal assessment in an adult client is to first Inspect the abdomen for any visible abnormalities, then Auscultate to listen for bowel sounds, followed by Percussion to assess for organ size and presence of fluid or masses, and finally Palpation to feel for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choice A, 'Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate,' is the correct sequence for an abdominal assessment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the recommended sequence of assessment. Palpation should be the last step as it can potentially alter bowel sounds and percussion findings if done before. This deviation can lead to missing important findings or inaccurate assessment results.

3. When is a depressed client at highest risk for attempting suicide?

• A. Immediately after admission, during one-to-one observation
• B. 7 to 14 days after initiation of antidepressant medication and psychotherapy
• C. Following an angry outburst with family
• D. When the client is removed from the security room

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Depressed clients are at the highest risk of attempting suicide 7 to 14 days after starting antidepressant medication and psychotherapy. During this time, they may start to regain energy but still feel hopeless, which can increase the risk of suicidal ideation and behavior. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because immediate post-admission, after an angry outburst with family, or when removed from a security room are not specific periods known to be associated with the highest risk of suicide in depressed clients.

4. A client is being taught how to administer ear drops. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands?

• A. I will straighten my ear canal by pulling my ear down and back.
• B. I will gently apply pressure with my finger to the front part of my ear after putting in the drops.
• C. I will insert the nozzle of the ear drop bottle snugly into my ear before squeezing the drops in.
• D. After the drops are in, I will place a cotton ball all the way into my ear canal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Gently applying pressure to the front part of the ear after administering drops helps with absorption. Pulling the ear down and back is a correct technique for adults. Snugly inserting the nozzle of the ear drop bottle or placing a cotton ball all the way into the ear canal is unnecessary and can potentially cause harm or discomfort. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

5. The client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely to assess for complications?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose. When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is essential due to the risk of hyperglycemia. TPN solutions are high in glucose, and clients may be at risk of developing hyperglycemia if the infusion rate is too high or if there are underlying issues such as insulin resistance. Monitoring serum potassium (choice A) is important but not the most crucial value to monitor in clients receiving TPN. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum calcium (choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN administration and are less likely to be affected compared to blood glucose levels.

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