HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A nurse is inserting an IV catheter for a client that results in a blood spill on her gloved hand. The client has no documented bloodstream infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Carefully remove the gloves and follow with hand hygiene
- B. Continue with the procedure and clean hands later
- C. Remove the gloves, wash hands, and start over
- D. Use hand sanitizer and continue the procedure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to carefully remove the gloves and follow with hand hygiene. This is important to prevent potential contamination and maintain infection control practices. Option B is incorrect because cleaning hands later may lead to the spread of potential contaminants. Option C is unnecessary as starting over is not required if proper hand hygiene is performed. Option D is not sufficient in ensuring proper hygiene after a blood spill, as hand sanitizer may not effectively remove all contaminants.
2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Blood glucose level
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. Serum creatinine level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.
3. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?
- A. I have problems with diarrhea.
- B. I have difficulty falling asleep.
- C. I have diminished sexual function.
- D. I often feel jittery.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and has signs of hemorrhagic shock. When the nurse notifies the surgeon, he directs her to continue to measure the client's vitals every 15 minutes and call him back in 1 hour. From a legal perspective, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Notify the nursing manager.
- B. Document the client's condition and communication with the surgeon.
- C. Administer additional fluids as per standard procedure.
- D. Call the surgeon back immediately to ensure timely intervention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should choose option B, which is to document the client's condition and communication with the surgeon. By documenting the client's condition and the communication with the surgeon, the nurse ensures legal protection and maintains continuity of care. This documentation serves as evidence of the actions taken, communication exchanged, and the rationale behind decisions made. Option A, notifying the nursing manager, may not be necessary at this stage unless there are specific institutional protocols requiring it. Administering additional fluids without further clarification may not be appropriate and could worsen the client's condition if not indicated. Calling the surgeon back immediately (option D) may disrupt the agreed-upon plan of action and fail to follow the surgeon's instructions of reassessment after an hour.
5. A client asks a nurse about the purpose of advance directives.
- A. Indicate a form of treatment a client is willing to accept.
- B. Specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment.
- C. Determine the client's daily medication schedule.
- D. Outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advance directives serve to indicate the forms of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or decline in the event they are unable to communicate their preferences. This legal document allows individuals to make decisions about their future healthcare. Choice B is incorrect as advance directives do not specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment. Choice C is incorrect as advance directives do not determine the client's daily medication schedule; this is typically addressed in a medication administration record. Choice D is incorrect as advance directives do not outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage, but rather focus on healthcare treatment preferences.
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