Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following manifestations confirms the presence of pediculosis capitis in students?

• A. Scratching the head more than usual
• B. Flakes evident on a student's shoulders
• C. Oval pattern occipital hair loss
• D. Whitish oval specks sticking to the hair

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Whitish oval specks sticking to the hair shaft are nits, which are a definitive sign of pediculosis capitis (head lice). A: Scratching the head more than usual is a common symptom but not confirmatory of head lice infestation. B: Flakes evident on a student's shoulders may indicate dandruff or dry scalp, not necessarily head lice. C: Oval pattern occipital hair loss is not a typical manifestation of pediculosis capitis.

2. A nurse observes a family member administer a rectal suppository by having the client lie on the left side for the administration. The family member pushed the suppository until the finger went up to the second knuckle. After 10 minutes, the client was told by the family member to turn to the right side. What is the appropriate comment for the nurse to make?

• A. Why don’t we now have the client turn back to the left side?
• B. That was done correctly. Did you have any problems with the insertion?
• C. Let’s check to see if the suppository is in far enough.
• D. Did you feel any stool in the intestinal tract?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the family member's actions in administering the rectal suppository were correct. Providing positive feedback and asking if there were any problems with the insertion is an appropriate response. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to have the client turn back to the left side after the suppository has been administered. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication that the suppository was not inserted correctly, so there is no need to check if it is in far enough. Choice D is incorrect because feeling stool in the intestinal tract is not relevant to the administration of a rectal suppository.

3. To ensure the safety of a client receiving a continuous intravenous normal saline infusion, how often should the LPN change the administration set?

• A. Every 4 to 8 hours
• B. Every 12 to 24 hours
• C. Every 24 to 48 hours
• D. Every 72 to 96 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the administration set every 72 to 96 hours. This practice helps reduce the risk of infection by preventing the build-up of bacteria in the tubing. Changing the set too frequently (choices A, B, and C) may increase the chances of contamination and infection without providing additional benefits. Therefore, the LPN should follow the guideline of changing the administration set every 72 to 96 hours to maintain the client's safety during the continuous intravenous normal saline infusion.

4. The nurse is planning care for a 12-year-old child with sickle cell disease in a vaso-occlusive crisis affecting the elbow. Which one of the following should be the priority?

• A. Limiting fluids
• B. Client-controlled analgesia
• C. Applying cold compresses to the elbow
• D. Performing passive range of motion exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, the priority intervention is effective pain management. Client-controlled analgesia allows the child to self-administer pain relief as needed, promoting comfort and reducing stress. Limiting fluids (choice A) is not appropriate in this scenario as hydration is essential to prevent complications. Cold compresses (choice C) may provide some comfort but do not address the underlying pain. Passive range of motion exercises (choice D) are contraindicated during a vaso-occlusive crisis due to the risk of further pain and tissue damage.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a client with type 1 diabetes. Which assessment finding would require the nurse to hold the insulin and contact the healthcare provider?

• A. Blood glucose of 100 mg/dL
• B. Client reports feeling shaky
• C. Client ate only half of breakfast
• D. Client is sweating

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A blood glucose of 100 mg/dL is relatively low for administering insulin, especially if the client has not eaten adequately; further assessment and contacting the provider are necessary. Hypoglycemia can be a serious concern when administering insulin, and a blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL indicates a risk of hypoglycemia. Holding the insulin and contacting the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent hypoglycemia-related complications. Choices B, C, and D are not immediate concerns for holding insulin as they do not directly indicate a risk of hypoglycemic events.

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