HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. Which nursing action prevents injury to a client's eye during the administration of eye drops?
- A. Holding the tip of the container above the conjunctival sac
- B. Rinsing the eye with saline before administration
- C. Placing the client in a supine position
- D. Pressing gently on the lower eyelid to open the eye
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct nursing action to prevent injury to a client's eye during the administration of eye drops is to hold the tip of the container above the conjunctival sac. This technique helps to prevent direct contact between the container and the eye, reducing the risk of injury. Rinsing the eye with saline before administration (Choice B) is not a standard practice and may not necessarily prevent injury. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice C) is not directly related to preventing eye injury during eye drop administration. Pressing gently on the lower eyelid to open the eye (Choice D) is not recommended as it can potentially cause injury or discomfort to the client.
2. A client with an aggressive form of prostate cancer declines to discuss concerns after the provider briefly discusses treatment options and leaves the room. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. “I am available to talk if you should change your mind.”
- B. “I understand you do not want to discuss it further.”
- C. “You should talk to the provider if you have more questions.”
- D. “I will be back later to discuss your concerns.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should offer support without pressuring the client. Stating, “I am available to talk if you should change your mind,” acknowledges the client's decision while leaving the door open for future discussions. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client's decision is final without offering further support. Choice C directs the client back to the provider without addressing the nurse's availability. Choice D commits to a future discussion without considering the client's current preference.
3. Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose?
- A. Drowsiness, lethargy, and inactivity
- B. Dry mouth, nasal congestion, and blurred vision
- C. Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression
- D. Hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, and severe depression are serious side effects of haloperidol that necessitate withholding the dose and prompt further evaluation. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction, blood dyscrasias are serious blood disorders that can be life-threatening, and severe depression may worsen with haloperidol use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drowsiness, lethargy, inactivity, dry mouth, nasal congestion, blurred vision, hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema are common side effects of haloperidol that may not necessarily contraindicate its use but should be monitored and managed appropriately.
4. A client with a history of asthma is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take first?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
- B. Encourage the client to practice deep breathing exercises.
- C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
- D. Obtain a peak flow reading.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed is the most appropriate initial action for managing asthma-related shortness of breath. Bronchodilators help to open up the airways quickly, providing relief for the client. Encouraging deep breathing exercises may be beneficial in some situations but should not be the first action for acute shortness of breath in asthma. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can also help improve breathing, but administering the bronchodilator takes precedence. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important in asthma management, but it is not the initial action needed to address acute shortness of breath.
5. A client has a sodium level of 125. What findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Abdominal cramping
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Decreased heart rate
- D. Increased thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Low sodium levels (hyponatremia) often present with various symptoms, including abdominal cramping. Abdominal cramping is a common manifestation of hyponatremia due to the altered electrolyte balance. Option B ('Elevated blood pressure') is incorrect because low sodium levels typically lead to decreased blood pressure, not elevated. Option C ('Decreased heart rate') is incorrect as low sodium levels are more likely to cause an irregular heart rate rather than a decreased heart rate. Option D ('Increased thirst') is incorrect because excessive thirst is more commonly associated with high sodium levels (hypernatremia) rather than low sodium levels.
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