Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease reports black, tarry stools. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Reassure the client that this is not a normal finding.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Document the finding in the client’s chart.
• D. Encourage the client to seek medical attention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. Black, tarry stools can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious complication that requires urgent medical evaluation and intervention. This finding should not be dismissed or considered normal without further assessment. Option A is incorrect because black, tarry stools are not a normal finding and may signify a significant health issue. Option C is incorrect as immediate action is needed rather than just documenting the finding. Option D is not the best choice as it simply suggests seeking medical attention without emphasizing the urgency of the situation. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management of potential gastrointestinal bleeding.

2. A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The LPN plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?

• A. 150
• B. 50
• C. 100
• D. 75

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting the infusion pump to 150 ml/hr ensures the correct administration rate of the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. To calculate the infusion rate, consider that the total volume to be infused is 50 ml over 20 minutes. To convert this to ml/hr, the calculation is (50 ml / 20 minutes) x 60 minutes/hr = 150 ml/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate needed to deliver the secondary infusion over the specified time.

3. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site is most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to use?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal site
• C. Dorsogluteal site
• D. Rectus femoris site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the most appropriate and safest site for administering an intramuscular injection to an adult client. It is preferred due to its thick muscle mass and fewer major blood vessels and nerves in the area, reducing the risk of injury or complications. The deltoid muscle is commonly used for vaccines and small-volume injections but may not be suitable for larger volumes. The dorsogluteal site has fallen out of favor due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve and other underlying structures. The rectus femoris site is not typically used for intramuscular injections in adults.

4. The LPN observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Tell the UAP to use a larger cuff at the next scheduled assessment.
• B. Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff.
• C. Have the unit educator review this procedure with the UAPs.
• D. Teach the UAP the correct technique for assessing blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reassessing the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff is the most important action for the nurse to implement in this situation. Using the correct cuff size is crucial for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings. By reassessing with a larger cuff, the nurse can ensure an accurate measurement and proper monitoring of the client's blood pressure. Choice A is not the best option as it doesn't address the immediate need for accurate blood pressure measurement. Choice C is not the most appropriate action at this time since the immediate concern is ensuring correct blood pressure assessment. Choice D, while important, is not the most critical step in this scenario where immediate reassessment is needed with the correct cuff size.

5. An older adult client at risk for osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about starting a regular physical activity program. Which type of activity should the nurse recommend?

• A. Walking briskly
• B. Riding a bicycle
• C. Performing isometric exercises
• D. Engaging in high-impact aerobics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is walking briskly. Weight-bearing exercises, such as brisk walking, are recommended for individuals at risk for osteoporosis because they help maintain bone mass and prevent bone loss. Riding a bicycle and performing isometric exercises are not weight-bearing activities, and therefore, may not provide the same bone-strengthening benefits as walking. High-impact aerobics can increase the risk of fractures in individuals with osteoporosis due to the high level of impact involved.

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