HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which symptom would be most concerning?
- A. Pain in the affected leg
- B. Redness and warmth in the affected leg
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Swelling in the affected leg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning symptom in a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) because it could indicate a pulmonary embolism. A pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of DVT where a blood clot travels to the lungs and can be life-threatening. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent further complications. Pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in the affected leg are common symptoms of DVT itself but do not pose the same level of immediate danger as the potential for a pulmonary embolism.
2. A client with an aggressive form of prostate cancer declines to discuss concerns after the provider briefly discusses treatment options and leaves the room. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. “I am available to talk if you should change your mind.”
- B. “I understand you do not want to discuss it further.”
- C. “You should talk to the provider if you have more questions.”
- D. “I will be back later to discuss your concerns.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should offer support without pressuring the client. Stating, “I am available to talk if you should change your mind,” acknowledges the client's decision while leaving the door open for future discussions. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client's decision is final without offering further support. Choice C directs the client back to the provider without addressing the nurse's availability. Choice D commits to a future discussion without considering the client's current preference.
3. A nurse is discussing the care of a group of clients with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following clients should the newly licensed nurse identify as experiencing chronic pain?
- A. A client who has a broken femur and reports hip pain.
- B. A client who has incisional pain 72 hours following pacemaker insertion.
- C. A client who has food poisoning and reports abdominal cramping.
- D. A client who has episodic back pain following a fall 2 years ago.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chronic pain is typically defined as pain lasting longer than 3-6 months or persisting after the expected time for tissue healing. Episodic back pain following a fall 2 years ago fits the criteria for chronic pain. Option A describes acute pain related to a recent fracture. Option B describes acute postoperative pain. Option C describes acute pain associated with an acute condition (food poisoning). Therefore, the correct identification of a client experiencing chronic pain is the one with episodic back pain from a past injury, as it has lasted beyond the normal healing time.
4. A client who is nonambulatory notifies the nurse that his trash can is on fire. After the nurse confirms the fire, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Activate the emergency fire alarm
- B. Extinguish the fire
- C. Evacuate the client
- D. Confine the fire
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next, after confirming the fire, is to evacuate the client. In a fire situation, following the RACE mnemonic, the priority is to rescue or evacuate clients to ensure their safety. Activating the emergency fire alarm (Choice A) is important to alert others and the fire department, but evacuating the client takes precedence. Extinguishing the fire (Choice B) may put the nurse and client at risk and is best left to trained personnel. Confining the fire (Choice D) is not the nurse's responsibility; the focus should be on ensuring the client's safety by evacuating them.
5. The healthcare professional prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The healthcare professional should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute?
- A. 80
- B. 8
- C. 21
- D. 25
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the IV infusion, first determine the total drops to be infused over 8 hours. 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours means 125 ml per hour (1000 ml / 8 hours = 125 ml/hr). Since the infusion set delivers 10 drops per ml, 125 ml/hr x 10 drops/ml = 1250 drops/hr. To find drops per minute, divide the drops per hour by 60 (minutes in an hour): 1250 drops/hr / 60 minutes = 20.83 drops/minute, which rounds up to 21 drops per minute (Option C). This rate ensures the correct infusion rate over 8 hours. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect calculations and do not provide the appropriate infusion rate needed to administer the IV over the specified time period.
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