Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a vest restraint. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Tie the restraint with a quick-release knot.
• B. Use a slipknot to secure the restraint.
• C. Ensure the restraint is tightly secured.
• D. Attach the restraint to the bed frame.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional to take when applying a vest restraint is to tie it with a quick-release knot. A quick-release knot allows for easy and rapid removal in case of an emergency, ensuring the safety of the client. Using a slipknot (Choice B) is not recommended as it may not provide quick release in emergencies. Ensuring the restraint is tightly secured (Choice C) can be dangerous as it can restrict circulation or cause discomfort. Attaching the restraint to the bed frame (Choice D) is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or injury to the client.

2. While interviewing a client, the nurse records the assessment in the electronic health record. Which statement is most accurate regarding electronic documentation during an interview?

• A. The client's comfort level is increased when the nurse maintains eye contact while typing notes into the record
• B. The interview process is hindered by electronic documentation and may disrupt the flow of conversation
• C. The nurse has limited ability to observe nonverbal communication while entering the assessment electronically
• D. Completing the electronic record during an interview is optional and not a legal obligation of the examining nurse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most accurate statement is that the nurse has a limited ability to observe nonverbal communication while entering the assessment electronically. This is because the nurse's focus is on typing or inputting data, which may lead to missing important nonverbal cues from the client. Choices A and B are incorrect as they do not address the limitation of observing nonverbal cues. Choice A is incorrect because breaking eye contact to type notes may hinder the client's comfort level. Choice B is incorrect because it states that electronic documentation enhances the interview process, which may not always be the case. Choice D is incorrect as completing the electronic record during an interview is typically a standard practice but not a legal obligation.

3. A nurse is giving a change-of-shift report about a client he admitted earlier that day who has pneumonia. Which of the following pieces of information is the priority for the nurse to provide?

• A. Breath sounds
• B. Client’s history of smoking
• C. Current medication list
• D. Client’s family history of respiratory illness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with pneumonia, assessing breath sounds is crucial as it provides immediate information about the client's respiratory status. Changes in breath sounds could indicate complications like fluid accumulation or worsening pneumonia. While the client's history of smoking (Choice B), current medication list (Choice C), and family history of respiratory illness (Choice D) are important factors to consider, they are not as urgent or directly related to the client's immediate condition as assessing breath sounds.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Hourly urine output
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
• D. Temperature every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.

5. Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml D5W at 50 ml/hour has been infusing for 5.5 hours. How much heparin has the client received?

• A. 11,000 units.
• B. 13,000 units.
• C. 15,000 units.
• D. 17,000 units.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the total amount of heparin received, multiply the infusion rate (50 ml/hour) by the total infusion time (5.5 hours). This results in 275 ml of the solution infused. Since there are 20,000 units of heparin in 500 ml, there are 800 units per ml. Therefore, 275 ml contains 220,000 units. However, the heparin is diluted in 500 ml, so the client has received half of this amount, which is 110,000 units. Therefore, the correct answer is 11,000 units. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

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