Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a vest restraint. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Tie the restraint with a quick-release knot.
• B. Use a slipknot to secure the restraint.
• C. Ensure the restraint is tightly secured.
• D. Attach the restraint to the bed frame.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional to take when applying a vest restraint is to tie it with a quick-release knot. A quick-release knot allows for easy and rapid removal in case of an emergency, ensuring the safety of the client. Using a slipknot (Choice B) is not recommended as it may not provide quick release in emergencies. Ensuring the restraint is tightly secured (Choice C) can be dangerous as it can restrict circulation or cause discomfort. Attaching the restraint to the bed frame (Choice D) is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or injury to the client.

2. A client is hospitalized for an infection of a surgical wound following abdominal surgery. To promote healing and fight wound infection, the nurse plans to arrange to increase the client's intake of:

• A. Vitamin C and Zinc
• B. Vitamin B12 and Calcium
• C. Vitamin D and Iron
• D. Vitamin A and Potassium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vitamin C and Zinc. Vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis, which is important for wound healing. Zinc plays a crucial role in immune function and also aids in wound healing. Vitamin B12 and Calcium (Choice B) are not directly associated with wound healing properties. Vitamin D and Iron (Choice C) are important for overall health but are not specifically targeted for wound healing. Vitamin A and Potassium (Choice D) do not have direct wound healing properties and are not the best choices to promote wound healing and fight infection.

3. When should discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure be initiated?

• A. During the admission process
• B. After the client is stabilized
• C. When the client expresses readiness to go home
• D. Just before the expected discharge date

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a client with an exacerbation of heart failure should begin during the admission process. Initiating discharge planning early ensures a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. Option B, after the client is stabilized, is not ideal because planning should start early to address potential barriers to discharge. Option C, when the client expresses readiness to go home, may be too late as discharge planning is a proactive process. Option D, just before the expected discharge date, does not allow enough time for comprehensive planning and coordination of post-discharge care needs.

4. What finding signifies that children have attained the stage of concrete operations according to Piaget?

• A. Demonstrates exploration of the environment through sight and movement
• B. Thinks in mental images or word pictures
• C. Makes the moral judgment that 'stealing is wrong'
• D. Reasons that homework is time-consuming yet necessary

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Makes the moral judgment that 'stealing is wrong''. This finding signifies the attainment of the concrete operational stage according to Piaget. At this stage, children begin to understand rules and logic, including moral judgments. Choice A is incorrect because it does not specifically relate to concrete operational thinking. Choice B is incorrect as it refers more to the preoperational stage where children engage in symbolic thought. Choice D is also incorrect as it involves practical reasoning, which is not directly related to the concrete operational stage according to Piaget.

5. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

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