HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?
- A. A nurse tied a client's restraints straps to the moveable part of the bed frame.
- B. An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has TB before transporting her to radiology.
- C. A nurse administered a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due.
- D. A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. An incident report should be completed when a nurse administers medication to a client significantly earlier than the scheduled time. This deviation from the prescribed schedule could potentially impact the client's treatment plan and requires documentation for proper evaluation and follow-up. Choices A, B, and D do not necessarily require an incident report. Choice A involves improper restraint application, which is a safety issue but does not directly involve medication administration. Choice B involves a protective measure for a client with TB, which is within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. Choice D describes an increase in IV fluid administration, which may need monitoring but does not necessarily indicate a need for an incident report unless there are specific complications or adverse effects related to the additional fluid.
2. During an eye assessment, what action should the nurse take to assess a client's extraocular eye movements?
- A. Position the client 6.1 m (20 ft) away from the Snellen chart
- B. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze
- C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye
- D. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 inches) away from the client's eye
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action to assess extraocular eye movements effectively. This technique evaluates the function of the six extraocular muscles and cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Positioning the client 6.1 m away from the Snellen chart is more relevant for visual acuity testing. Asking the client to cover their right eye during the assessment is not necessary for evaluating extraocular movements. Holding a finger at a specific distance in front of the client's eye is not an appropriate method for assessing extraocular eye movements.
3. The client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?
- A. Potassium
- B. Sodium
- C. Calcium
- D. Magnesium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! When a client is taking furosemide (Lasix), monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the potential for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Low potassium levels can predispose the client to cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by furosemide to the same extent as potassium, making them less critical to monitor in this scenario.
4. During assessment, what is a nurse monitoring when assessing body alignment?
- A. The relationship of one body part to another in different positions
- B. The coordination between musculoskeletal and nervous systems
- C. The force opposing movement direction
- D. The ability to move freely
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a nurse assesses body alignment, they are observing the relationship of one body part to another in various positions. This involves evaluating the positioning of joints, tendons, ligaments, and muscles while a person is standing, sitting, or lying down. Choice B is incorrect because it refers more to the coordination between the musculoskeletal and nervous systems, which is not specifically related to body alignment assessment. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the force opposing movement rather than body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as it defines the ability to move freely, which is not directly related to monitoring body alignment.
5. A client who requires maximal support is being taught how to use a two-wheeled walker by a nurse. Which of the following actions by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. The client moves the walker ahead 25.4 cm with each step
- B. The client picks up the walker with each step
- C. The client stands with elbows slightly bent while holding the walker
- D. The client stoops slightly forward when moving the walker
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When using a two-wheeled walker, the client should stand with elbows slightly bent to maintain balance and stability. This position helps distribute weight effectively and promotes proper use of the walker. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A does not demonstrate proper posture while using the walker. Choice B of picking up the walker with each step is not the correct technique and can lead to instability. Choice D of stooping slightly forward is also incorrect as it can affect balance and posture negatively.
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