Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

• A. A nurse tied a client's restraints straps to the moveable part of the bed frame.
• B. An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has TB before transporting her to radiology.
• C. A nurse administered a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due.
• D. A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An incident report should be completed when a nurse administers medication to a client significantly earlier than the scheduled time. This deviation from the prescribed schedule could potentially impact the client's treatment plan and requires documentation for proper evaluation and follow-up. Choices A, B, and D do not necessarily require an incident report. Choice A involves improper restraint application, which is a safety issue but does not directly involve medication administration. Choice B involves a protective measure for a client with TB, which is within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. Choice D describes an increase in IV fluid administration, which may need monitoring but does not necessarily indicate a need for an incident report unless there are specific complications or adverse effects related to the additional fluid.

2. A client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to include?

• A. Monitor the client for pain in the suprapubic region.
• B. Ensure the client is free of metal objects.
• C. Administer 240 mL (8 oz) of oral contrast before the procedure.
• D. Assist the client with a bowel cleansing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include before an intravenous pyelogram is ensuring the client is free of metal objects. Metal objects can interfere with the imaging procedure and may need to be removed to prevent artifacts. Monitoring for pain in the suprapubic region (choice A) is not directly related to the procedure and is not a standard pre-procedure action. Administering oral contrast (choice C) is more common for other imaging studies like a CT scan, not an intravenous pyelogram. Assisting with a bowel cleansing (choice D) is not typically required before an intravenous pyelogram.

3. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?

• A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
• B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
• C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
• D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.

4. A 3-year-old child has had multiple tooth extractions while under general anesthesia. The client returns from the post-anesthesia care unit crying but awake. Which approach is likely to be successful?

• A. Examine the mouth first
• B. Reassure the child
• C. Examine the mouth last
• D. Offer a pacifier

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial to prioritize the comfort of the child. By examining the mouth last, discomfort is minimized, and the child is given the opportunity to settle down. Choosing to examine the mouth first may escalate the distress of the child further. While reassuring the child is important, in this case, addressing the physical discomfort before providing emotional reassurance is more effective. Offering a pacifier may provide some comfort, but addressing the immediate physical discomfort by examining the mouth last is the most appropriate action to help the child settle down after the procedure.

5. A client with a history of asthma is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
• B. Encourage the client to practice deep breathing exercises.
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
• D. Obtain a peak flow reading.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed is the most appropriate initial action for managing asthma-related shortness of breath. Bronchodilators help to open up the airways quickly, providing relief for the client. Encouraging deep breathing exercises may be beneficial in some situations but should not be the first action for acute shortness of breath in asthma. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can also help improve breathing, but administering the bronchodilator takes precedence. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important in asthma management, but it is not the initial action needed to address acute shortness of breath.

Similar Questions