Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse is explaining the various stages of the lifespan to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following examples should the nurse include as a developmental task for middle adulthood?

• A. The client evaluates their behavior after a social interaction.
• B. The client states they are learning to trust others.
• C. The client wishes to find meaningful friendships.
• D. The client expresses concerns about the next generations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because in middle adulthood, individuals often shift their focus towards concerns related to the next generations. They reflect on their roles in guiding and supporting the younger generations. Choice A is incorrect as evaluating behavior after a social interaction is more relevant to self-awareness, which is not a specific developmental task for middle adulthood. Choice B, learning to trust others, is more commonly associated with early adulthood tasks related to forming intimate relationships. Choice C, wishing to find meaningful friendships, is more aligned with tasks associated with young adulthood and social connections.

2. A healthcare provider is providing range of motion to the shoulder and must perform external rotation. Which action will the provider take?

• A. Moves the patient's arm in a full circle.
• B. Moves the patient's arm across the body as far as possible.
• C. Moves the patient's arm behind the body, keeping the elbow straight.
• D. Moves the patient's arm until the thumb is upward and lateral to the head with the elbow flexed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for external rotation of the shoulder involves moving the patient's arm until the thumb is upward and lateral to the head with the elbow flexed. This position maximizes external rotation at the shoulder joint. Choices A, moving the arm in a full circle, B, moving the arm across the body, and C, moving the arm behind the body with the elbow straight, do not describe external rotation and are incorrect. Therefore, Choice D is the correct action for performing external rotation.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Pain level of 8/10
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F
• D. Saturated abdominal dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is learning to self-administer insulin. Which action by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. The client rotates injection sites on the abdomen.
• B. The client draws up the insulin dose after warming the vial to room temperature.
• C. The client pinches the skin before injecting the insulin.
• D. The client injects the insulin at a 90-degree angle.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Drawing up insulin after warming the vial to room temperature indicates a need for further teaching, as insulin should be at room temperature for administration. Choice A is correct as rotating injection sites helps prevent lipodystrophy. Choice C is correct as pinching the skin helps ensure proper subcutaneous injection. Choice D is correct as injecting insulin at a 90-degree angle is the recommended technique for subcutaneous injections.

5. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.

Similar Questions