HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A parent asks a nurse about his infant's expected physical development during the first year of life. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. A 10-month-old infant can pull up to a standing position.
- B. A 6-month-old infant can walk with assistance.
- C. A 12-month-old infant can jump with both feet.
- D. An 8-month-old infant can crawl on hands and knees.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. By 10 months, infants can typically pull up to a standing position as part of their physical development. Walking with assistance usually begins around 9-12 months, not at 6 months (choice B). Jumping with both feet is a skill that usually develops around 24 months, not at 12 months (choice C). Crawling on hands and knees typically starts around 6-9 months, not at 8 months (choice D). Therefore, the most accurate information to include for an infant's expected physical development at 10 months is the ability to pull up to a standing position.
2. The nurse is admitting a patient diagnosed with a stroke. The healthcare provider writes orders for 'ROM as needed.' What should the nurse do next?
- A. Restrict the patient's mobility as much as possible.
- B. Realize the patient is unable to move extremities.
- C. Move all the patient's extremities.
- D. Further assess the patient.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to further assess the patient. 'ROM as needed' stands for Range of Motion, indicating that the patient should have their limbs moved to maintain joint flexibility and muscle strength. Before initiating any movements, it is crucial to assess the patient's current condition to determine their abilities and limitations. Restricting mobility (choice A) is not appropriate as it contradicts the purpose of ROM exercises. Realizing the patient is unable to move extremities (choice B) assumes without assessment and can lead to inappropriate care. Moving all the patient's extremities (choice C) without assessing the patient first can be harmful, as it may cause pain or injury if done incorrectly. Therefore, further assessment is necessary to provide safe and effective care.
3. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?
- A. Decrease in heart rate
- B. Increase in blood pressure
- C. Decrease in respiratory rate
- D. Increase in urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.
4. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is washing her hands prior to assisting with a surgical procedure. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrates proper surgical hand-washing technique?
- A. The nurse washes with her hands held higher than her elbows.
- B. The nurse uses an alcohol-based hand rub for 30 seconds.
- C. The nurse scrubs hands and forearms for 2 minutes with soap and water.
- D. The nurse washes her hands with soap and water for only 15 seconds.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Proper surgical hand-washing technique involves washing with the hands held higher than the elbows. This positioning is essential to ensure proper rinsing and to prevent the risk of contamination. Option B, using an alcohol-based hand rub for 30 seconds, is not specific to surgical hand-washing and is more commonly used for routine hand hygiene. Option C, scrubbing hands and forearms for 2 minutes with soap and water, is excessive and not typically required for routine hand-washing. Option D, washing hands with soap and water for only 15 seconds, is insufficient for thorough surgical hand-washing.
5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septicemia. Which assessment finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Increased urine output
- B. Decreased blood pressure
- C. Increased heart rate
- D. Increased respiratory rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with septicemia, decreased blood pressure is a critical finding that suggests potential septic shock, a life-threatening condition. Septic shock requires immediate medical intervention to prevent further deterioration and organ dysfunction. Increased urine output (Choice A) may indicate adequate fluid resuscitation, which is a positive response. Increased heart rate (Choice C) and increased respiratory rate (Choice D) are common physiological responses to sepsis and do not necessarily indicate immediate life-threatening complications like decreased blood pressure does in septic shock.
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