HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Discard the first voiding.
- B. Keep the urine in a single container on ice.
- C. Include the last voiding in the collection.
- D. Instruct the client to urinate into the toilet, stop midstream, and finish urinating into the specimen container.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection is to discard the first voiding. This initial voiding is typically not collected to allow for the accurate start of the 24-hour collection period. All subsequent urine voided within the specified time frame is then collected. Including the last voiding in the collection is important to ensure that the full 24-hour period is covered. It is essential to keep the urine cool by storing it in a single container on ice to prevent degradation of components. Instructing the client to stop midstream and finish urinating into the specimen container is not required for a 24-hour urine collection and is an unnecessary step.
2. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client who does not speak the same language. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Use proper medical terms when providing instructions to the client.
- B. Offer written instructions in the client’s language.
- C. Direct verbal discharge instructions to the interpreter.
- D. Request that an assistive personnel interpret instructions for the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare provider when providing discharge teaching to a client who does not speak the same language is to offer written instructions in the client’s language. This approach helps ensure better comprehension and adherence to the instructions as the client can refer back to the written material for clarification. Choice A is incorrect because using proper medical terms may not be effective if the client does not understand the language. Choice C is incorrect since verbal instructions should be directed to the client for better understanding. Choice D is incorrect as assistive personnel may not be qualified or trained to provide accurate interpretation, risking miscommunication and potential errors in the instructions.
3. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?
- A. 16
- B. 12
- C. 6
- D. 14
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.
4. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
- B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
- C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
- D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.
5. A client scheduled for a hysterectomy has not yet signed the operative consent form. When the nurse approaches the client and asks that she review and sign the form, the client says she no longer wants to have the surgery. At this time, which action should the nurse take?
- A. Ask the client why she has changed her mind
- B. Proceed with the surgery
- C. Notify the surgeon immediately
- D. Document the client’s decision
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to ask the client why she has changed her mind. By understanding the client's reasons for refusal, the nurse can address any concerns, provide further information, and ensure that the client's decision is respected. Proceeding with the surgery without clarifying the client's decision or notifying the surgeon immediately would not be appropriate. Documenting the client's decision is important, but it should be done after understanding the rationale behind the decision.
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