Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a child who has a prescription for a blood transfusion. The parents have refused the treatment due to religious beliefs. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Examine personal values about the issue.
• B. Respect the parents' decision and provide alternative treatment options.
• C. Seek a court order to proceed with the transfusion.
• D. Discuss the issue with the child.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Examining personal values about the issue is crucial for the healthcare professional to provide unbiased care while still respecting the parents' beliefs. Choice B is incorrect because respecting the parents' decision is essential, but providing alternative treatment options may not be warranted in this situation where the parents' decision is based on religious beliefs. Seeking a court order (Choice C) should only be considered as a last resort when the child's life is in immediate danger and all other options have been exhausted. Discussing the issue with the child (Choice D) may not be appropriate as the child may not fully comprehend the situation or the implications of going against the parents' beliefs.

2. A nurse manager is developing strategies to care for the increasing number of clients who have obesity. Which of the following actions should the nurse include as a primary health care strategy?

• A. Collaborating with providers to perform obesity screenings during routine office visits.
• B. Ensuring the availability of specialized beds in rehabilitation centers for clients who have obesity.
• C. Providing specialized intraoperative training in surgical treatments for obesity.
• D. Educating acute care nurses about postoperative complications related to obesity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Collaborating with providers to perform obesity screenings during routine office visits. This is a primary health care strategy as it focuses on prevention and early detection, which are key components of managing obesity. Screening during routine visits allows for timely identification of obesity and related health risks, enabling early intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not align with primary health care strategies for obesity. Ensuring availability of specialized beds, providing intraoperative training, and educating about postoperative complications are more focused on secondary and tertiary levels of care, rather than primary prevention and early detection.

3. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

4. A client who is 5'5" tall and weighs 200 pounds is scheduled for surgery the next day. What question is most important for the LPN to include during the preoperative assessment?

• A. What is your daily calorie consumption?
• B. What vitamin and mineral supplements do you take?
• C. Do you feel that you are overweight?
• D. Will a clear liquid diet be okay after surgery?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the preoperative assessment, it is crucial for the LPN to inquire about the client's intake of vitamin and mineral supplements. This is important because certain supplements can have effects on coagulation, wound healing, and overall surgical outcomes. Asking about daily calorie consumption (Choice A) is not as pertinent as inquiring about vitamin and mineral supplements in this context. Questioning the client about feeling overweight (Choice C) may not directly impact the surgical outcome compared to the effects of supplements. Inquiring about the post-surgery diet (Choice D) is relevant but not as critical as understanding the client's supplement intake.

5. During assessment, what is an indication of thrombophlebitis in a client who has been on bed rest for the past month?

• A. Calf swelling
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Generalized rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calf swelling is a common sign of thrombophlebitis, which is inflammation of a vein due to a blood clot. Prolonged immobility can predispose individuals to thrombophlebitis. Calf swelling occurs due to the obstruction of blood flow, causing localized edema. This condition can lead to serious complications like pulmonary embolism if not promptly addressed. Elevated blood pressure, decreased urine output, and a generalized rash are not typically associated with thrombophlebitis. Elevated blood pressure may be linked to other conditions like hypertension, decreased urine output to kidney dysfunction, and a generalized rash to allergic reactions or skin conditions. Therefore, in a client on bed rest, calf swelling should raise suspicion of thrombophlebitis and prompt further evaluation and intervention.

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