Nursing Elites

1. A client returning from the surgical suite following a vaginal hysterectomy is awake and asking for something to drink. Her post-op diet prescription reads: 'clear liquids, advance diet as tolerated.' Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to tell the patient?

• A. ''I am going to listen to your abdomen.''
• B. ''You need to wait until the surgeon evaluates your condition.''
• C. ''You can have clear liquids, but let me check with the surgeon first.''
• D. ''It is best to start with small sips of clear liquids and observe how you feel.''

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: ''I am going to listen to your abdomen.'' Listening to the abdomen helps assess bowel sounds and ensure that the client’s gastrointestinal system is ready for oral intake. Choice B is incorrect because the client does not necessarily need to wait for the surgeon to evaluate before starting with clear liquids. Choice C is incorrect because unless there are specific contraindications, clear liquids are usually allowed after surgery. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate assessment needed before initiating oral intake post-operatively.

2. A client is lying on the bathroom floor after a nurse responds to a call light. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client for injuries
• B. Move hazardous objects away from the client
• C. Notify the provider
• D. Ask the client to describe how she felt prior to the fall

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority in this situation is to assess the client for injuries. Checking for injuries first is crucial to determine the extent of harm caused by the fall and to provide immediate care. Moving hazardous objects can wait until the client's safety is ensured. Notifying the provider and asking the client about how she felt prior to the fall are important but are secondary to assessing for injuries in this urgent scenario. It is essential to address immediate physical needs before investigating the cause of the fall or notifying other healthcare team members.

3. When assessing a client's skin as part of a comprehensive physical examination, what finding should a nurse expect?

• A. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds
• B. 1+ pitting edema in both feet
• C. Pale nail beds in both hands
• D. Thick skin on the soles of the feet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capillary refill less than 3 seconds. This finding is considered normal and indicates good peripheral perfusion. Pitting edema (choice B) and pale nail beds (choice C) are abnormal findings that may suggest underlying health issues. Thick skin on the soles of the feet (choice D) is not an expected normal finding during a skin assessment and could be indicative of a callus or other skin condition.

4. A nurse questions a medication prescription as too extreme in light of the client’s advanced age and unstable status. The nurse understands that this action is an example of which of the following ethical principles?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Nonmaleficence

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence refers to the principle of 'do no harm.' In this scenario, questioning a potentially harmful prescription for a client with advanced age and unstable status aligns with the principle of nonmaleficence, as the nurse is advocating for the client's safety and well-being. Choice A, Fidelity, refers to being faithful and keeping promises, which is not directly related to the situation described. Choice B, Autonomy, pertains to respecting a patient's right to make their own decisions, which is not the focus of the nurse questioning the prescription. Choice C, Justice, involves fairness and equal treatment, which is not the primary ethical principle at play in this situation.

5. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?

• A. Screening for early symptoms
• B. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions
• C. Elimination of the exposure
• D. Increasing awareness of symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.

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