Nursing Elites

1. A newborn's head circumference is 12 inches (30.5 cm) and his chest measurement is 13 inches (33 cm). The nurse notes that this infant has no molding, and it was a breech presentation delivered by cesarean section. What action should the nurse take based on this data?

• A. No action needs to be taken, it is normal for an infant born by cesarean section to have a small head circumference.
• B. Notify the pediatrician immediately. These signs support the possibility of hydrocephalus.
• C. Call these findings to the attention of the pediatrician. The head/chest ratio is abnormal.
• D. Record the findings on the chart. They are within normal limits.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Head and chest circumference measurements are within normal limits for a newborn, especially for those delivered by cesarean section, so no immediate action is required beyond documentation.

2. Do sebaceous glands cause a developing organism to grow arms or wings, skin, or scales?

• A. True
• B. False
• C. Possibly
• D. Never

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: False. Sebaceous glands are associated with the skin's oil production and have no role in the development of limbs or body coverings. Sebaceous glands primarily produce sebum, an oily substance that lubricates and waterproofs the skin and hair. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sebaceous glands do not influence the growth of arms, wings, skin, or scales in a developing organism.

3. What is the purpose of amniocentesis?

• A. To induce abortion
• B. To detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus
• C. To determine the baby's gender
• D. To monitor fetal growth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure used to detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus, such as chromosomal disorders like Down syndrome. It is not performed to induce abortion. The primary purpose of amniocentesis is to assess the genetic health of the fetus, not to determine the baby's gender (Choice C). While amniocentesis can provide information about the baby's health and development, it is not primarily used for monitoring fetal growth (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is B.

4. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Urine Ketones
• B. Rapid plasma reagin
• C. Prothrombin time
• D. Urine culture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Urine ketones should be anticipated as a laboratory test for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum because it helps assess the severity of dehydration and malnutrition, which are common complications of this condition. Choice B, rapid plasma reagin, is a test for syphilis and is not relevant to hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, prothrombin time, is a measure of blood clotting function and is not typically indicated for hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice D, urine culture, is used to identify bacteria in the urine and is not directly related to assessing dehydration and malnutrition in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum.

5. _____ are environmental agents that can harm the embryo or fetus.

• A. Mutations
• B. Autosomes
• C. Teratogens
• D. Androgens

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Teratogens are environmental agents, such as drugs, chemicals, or infections, that can cause harm to a developing embryo or fetus. Mutations (Choice A) refer to changes in the DNA sequence and are not environmental agents. Autosomes (Choice B) are chromosomes that are not involved in determining an individual's sex and are not environmental agents that harm the embryo or fetus. Androgens (Choice D) are a group of hormones that are more related to male sexual development and function, not environmental agents that harm the embryo or fetus.

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