Nursing Elites

1. A multiparous woman has been in labor for 8 hours. Her membranes have just ruptured. What is the nurse’s highest priority in this situation?

• A. Prepare the woman for imminent birth.
• B. Notify the woman’s primary healthcare provider.
• C. Document the characteristics of the fluid.
• D. Assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) and pattern.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) and pattern (Choice D). When a multiparous woman's membranes rupture after 8 hours of labor, the nurse's priority is to assess the fetal well-being. Rupture of membranes can lead to potential complications such as umbilical cord prolapse. Monitoring the fetal heart rate and pattern immediately after the rupture of membranes is crucial to ensure the fetus is not in distress. This assessment helps in determining the need for immediate interventions to safeguard the fetus. Documenting the characteristics of the fluid (Choice C) may be necessary but is of lower priority compared to assessing fetal well-being. While preparing the woman for imminent birth (Choice A) is important, assessing the fetal heart rate takes precedence to ensure the fetus is not compromised. Notifying the woman's primary healthcare provider (Choice B) is also important but not the highest priority at this moment.

2. Which of the following is most likely to develop sickle cell anemia?

• A. European American
• B. Native American
• C. African American
• D. Asian American

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sickle cell anemia is most commonly found in individuals of African American descent. This is because sickle cell trait provides some protection against malaria, and historically, regions where malaria is or was prevalent have higher rates of sickle cell anemia. Therefore, individuals with African ancestry are at a higher risk of developing sickle cell anemia compared to other populations. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to develop sickle cell anemia due to lower genetic prevalence in their respective populations.

3. A primigravida arrives at the observation unit of the maternity unit because she thinks she is in labor. The nurse applies the external fetal heart monitor and determines that the fetal heart rate is 140 beats per minute and contractions are occurring irregularly every 10 to 15 minutes. Which assessment finding confirms to the nurse that the client is not in labor at this time?

• A. Membranes are intact.
• B. 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities.
• C. Contractions decrease with walking.
• D. Cervical dilation is 1 centimeter.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Contractions that decrease with walking are typically indicative of false labor, as true labor contractions tend to intensify with activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A) Intact membranes are a normal finding and do not confirm the absence of labor. B) 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities is a sign of fluid retention and not directly related to labor status. D) Cervical dilation of 1 centimeter indicates some cervical changes, but it alone does not confirm active labor.

4. What maternal factor should the nurse identify as having the greatest impact on the development of spina bifida occulta in a newborn?

• A. Short interval between pregnancies
• B. Folic acid deficiency
• C. Preeclampsia
• D. Tobacco use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy is a well-known risk factor for neural tube defects, including spina bifida occulta, making supplementation critical in prenatal care. Folic acid plays a crucial role in neural tube formation during early pregnancy. Short intervals between pregnancies do not directly impact the development of spina bifida occulta. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy and is not directly linked to spina bifida occulta. While tobacco use during pregnancy has various adverse effects, it is not the primary factor influencing the development of spina bifida occulta in newborns.

5. Is Duchenne muscular dystrophy a sex-linked abnormality?

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Sometimes
• D. Always

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, primarily affecting males. This is due to the inheritance of the mutated gene on the X chromosome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Duchenne muscular dystrophy is specifically classified as a sex-linked disorder affecting males due to the inheritance pattern.

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