Nursing Elites

1. In observing a client who is pacing, agitated, and presenting aggressive gestures, with rapid speech pattern and belligerent affect, what is the immediate priority of care for the nurse?

• A. Provide safety for the client and other clients on the unit
• B. Provide the clients on the unit with a sense of comfort and safety
• C. Assist the staff in caring for the client in a controlled environment
• D. Offer the client a less stimulated area to calm down and gain control

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where a client is displaying aggression and agitation, the immediate priority of care for the nurse is to ensure safety for the client and others on the unit. Providing a safe environment and implementing calming measures take precedence over other interventions. Option A is the correct choice as it addresses the crucial need for safety in a potentially volatile situation. Options B, C, and D, although important, do not address the primary concern of ensuring safety for all individuals involved.

2. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

3. A 35-year-old male client on the psychiatric ward of a general hospital believes that someone is trying to poison him. The nurse understands that a client's delusions are most likely related to his

• A. early childhood experiences involving authority issues.
• B. anger about being hospitalized.
• C. low self-esteem.
• D. phobic fear of food.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: low self-esteem. Delusions of persecution, like being poisoned, are often rooted in underlying issues of low self-esteem and trust. Option A is incorrect because the delusion is not necessarily related to early childhood experiences involving authority issues. Option B is incorrect as there is no information provided that suggests the client's delusion is driven by anger about being hospitalized. Option D is incorrect as the delusion is about being poisoned, not a phobic fear of food.

4. The RN is providing care for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted lacerations on the abdomen. Which approach should the RN use when changing this client's dressing?

• A. Provide detailed explanations during wound cleansing.
• B. Perform the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner.
• C. Ask the client non-threateningly why they cut their abdomen.
• D. Request assistance from another staff member for the dressing change.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner is crucial when caring for a client with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted injuries. This approach helps build trust, reduces feelings of shame or guilt, and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Choice A is incorrect because while detailed explanations may be necessary, the focus should be on the non-judgmental approach. Choice C is inappropriate as it may come across as accusatory or threatening, potentially worsening the client's emotional state. Choice D is not the best option as the RN should strive to handle the situation themselves in a supportive and empathetic manner.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) to a client on the psychiatric unit. Which complaint related to administration of this drug should the nurse expect this client to make?

• A. My mouth feels like cotton.
• B. That medication gives me indigestion.
• C. This pill gives me diarrhea.
• D. My urine looks pink.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect of MAO inhibitors like phenelzine due to their anticholinergic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as indigestion, diarrhea, and pink urine are not commonly associated side effects of phenelzine.

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