Nursing Elites

1. Which information should the LPN/LVN exclude in the nursing plan of care for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. The medical diagnosis of the client
• B. Individualized goals and objectives
• C. Attendance at group therapy sessions
• D. Self-care measures to improve hygiene

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because including the medical diagnosis of the client in the nursing plan is redundant as the healthcare team is already aware of the diagnosis. The nursing plan of care for a client with OCD should focus on individualized goals, objectives, attendance at group therapy sessions, and self-care measures to improve hygiene. These components directly contribute to addressing the client's needs and promoting recovery. Therefore, the medical diagnosis does not need to be included in the nursing plan as it does not actively guide the day-to-day care and interventions for the client.

2. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take with a manic depressive male client who becomes loud and verbally aggressive towards a nurse?

• A. Have the staff escort the client to his room.
• B. Tell the client that his behavior will be recorded in his record.
• C. Redirect the client by asking him to engage in a game with peers.
• D. Review the medication record for an antipsychotic drug.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In dealing with a manic depressive client who is being verbally aggressive, the best initial action for the nurse is to redirect the client by engaging him in a more constructive activity, such as playing card games with peers. This approach can help de-escalate the situation, shift the client's focus positively, and provide a distraction from the current behavior. Having the staff escort the client to his room may escalate the situation further. Threatening to record the behavior in his record is not likely to be effective in managing the immediate situation. Reviewing the medication record for an antipsychotic drug is important but would not be the best initial action in this scenario when the client is being verbally aggressive.

3. A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed valproic acid (Depakote). What is the most important laboratory test for the LPN/LVN to monitor?

• A. Liver function tests.
• B. Kidney function tests.
• C. Thyroid function tests.
• D. Complete blood count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Monitoring liver function tests is crucial for clients prescribed valproic acid (Depakote) due to the medication's potential to affect liver function and increase the risk of liver toxicity. While kidney function tests (choice B), thyroid function tests (choice C), and complete blood count (choice D) are important in various clinical scenarios, the priority when administering valproic acid is to monitor liver function to prevent adverse effects associated with this medication.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who received the first-time electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) a half hour ago. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Offer oral fluids.
• B. Monitor vital signs.
• C. Evaluate ECT effectiveness.
• D. Encourage group participation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a client receives electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), the nurse's priority should be to monitor vital signs. This is important to ensure the client's physical stability and detect any immediate complications post-procedure. Offering oral fluids, evaluating ECT effectiveness, and encouraging group participation are all important aspects of care but monitoring vital signs takes precedence in the immediate post-ECT period.

5. The nurse plans to help an 18-year-old female intellectually disabled client ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy. When the nurse tells the client it is time to get out of bed, the client becomes angry and tells the nurse, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

• A. Your healthcare provider has prescribed ambulation on the first postoperative day.
• B. You must ambulate to avoid complications that could cause more discomfort than ambulating.
• C. I know how you feel. You're angry about having to ambulate, but this will help you get well.
• D. I'll be back in 30 minutes to help you get out of bed and walk around the room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: (D) provides a 'cooling off' period, is firm, direct, non-threatening, and avoids arguing with the client. (A) is avoiding responsibility by referring to the healthcare provider. (B) is trying to reason with an intellectually disabled client and is threatening the client with 'complications.' (C) is telling the client how she feels (angry), and the nurse does not really 'know' how this client feels, unless the nurse is also intellectually disabled and has also just had an appendectomy.

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