Nursing Elites

1. Which information should the LPN/LVN exclude in the nursing plan of care for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. The medical diagnosis of the client
• B. Individualized goals and objectives
• C. Attendance at group therapy sessions
• D. Self-care measures to improve hygiene

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because including the medical diagnosis of the client in the nursing plan is redundant as the healthcare team is already aware of the diagnosis. The nursing plan of care for a client with OCD should focus on individualized goals, objectives, attendance at group therapy sessions, and self-care measures to improve hygiene. These components directly contribute to addressing the client's needs and promoting recovery. Therefore, the medical diagnosis does not need to be included in the nursing plan as it does not actively guide the day-to-day care and interventions for the client.

2. In a mental health unit of a hospital, a LPN/LVN is leading a group psychotherapy session. What is the nurse's role in the termination stage of group development?

• A. Encourage problem solving
• B. Encourage accomplishment of the group's work
• C. Acknowledge the contributions of each group member
• D. Encourage members to become acquainted with one another

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the termination stage of group development in psychotherapy, the nurse's role is to acknowledge the contributions of each group member. This action helps to close the group on a positive note, reinforcing the therapeutic experience. Choice A, encouraging problem-solving, is more relevant in the earlier stages of group development. Choice B, encouraging the accomplishment of the group's work, is important throughout the group process but is not specific to the termination stage. Choice D, encouraging members to become acquainted with one another, is more aligned with the initial stages of group formation rather than the termination stage.

3. At the first meeting of a group of older adults at a daycare center for the elderly, the LPN/LVN asks one of the members what kinds of things she would like to do with the group. The older woman shrugs her shoulders and says, 'You tell me, you're the leader.' What is the best response for the nurse to make?

• A. Yes, I am the leader today. Would you like to be the leader tomorrow?
• B. Yes, I will be leading this group. What would you like to accomplish during this time?
• C. Yes, I have been assigned to be the leader of this group. I will be here for the next six weeks.
• D. Yes, I am the leader. You seem angry about not being the leader yourself.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is choice B: 'Yes, I will be leading this group. What would you like to accomplish during this time?' This response acknowledges the member's comment and encourages her to share her interests, promoting engagement and active participation in group activities. Choice A is not as inclusive and may not foster collaboration within the group. Choice C focuses more on the nurse's assignment rather than addressing the member's input. Choice D assumes emotions that were not expressed by the group member and does not encourage open communication.

4. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
• B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
• C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

5. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

• A. Describes life as without purpose.
• B. Exhibits an increase in sweating.
• C. States is often fatigued and drowsy.
• D. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Expressing that life is without purpose can indicate deepening depression or suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. While sweating, fatigue, drowsiness, nausea, and loss of appetite can be side effects of duloxetine (Cymbalta), they do not indicate the same level of urgency as a statement suggesting deepening depression or suicidal ideation.

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