Nursing Elites

1. A home health nurse is planning to provide health promotion activities for a group of clients in the community. Which of the following activities is an example of the nurse promoting primary prevention?

• A. Educating clients about the recommended immunization schedule for adults
• B. Teaching clients how to manage chronic illnesses
• C. Providing counseling for depression
• D. Offering support groups for cancer survivors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Educating clients about the recommended immunization schedule for adults. This activity falls under primary prevention, which aims to prevent the onset of illness or injury. Immunizations are a proactive measure to protect individuals from developing certain diseases. Choices B, C, and D involve managing chronic illnesses, providing counseling for mental health issues, and offering support for individuals who have already experienced cancer, respectively. These activities are more aligned with secondary or tertiary prevention, focusing on managing existing conditions or preventing complications in those already affected.

2. A client who is non-ambulatory notifies the nurse that his trash can is on fire. After the nurse confirms the fire, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Evacuate the client
• B. Attempt to extinguish the fire
• C. Call the fire department
• D. Close the door to contain the fire

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to Evacuate the client (Choice A). In the event of a fire, the safety of the client is the top priority. The RACE (Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish) mnemonic is used in fire emergencies. The first step is to Rescue or Evacuate the individual from immediate danger. Attempting to extinguish the fire (Choice B) may endanger both the client and the nurse. Calling the fire department (Choice C) is important but should come after ensuring the client's safety. Closing the door to contain the fire (Choice D) is not appropriate in this scenario because the priority is to remove the client from harm's way.

3. The nurse is teaching an elderly client how to use MDIs (multi-dose inhalers). The nurse is concerned that the client is unable to coordinate the release of the medication with the inhalation phase. What is the nurse's best recommendation to improve the delivery of the medication?

• A. Nebulized treatments for home care
• B. Adding a spacer device to the MDI canister
• C. Asking a family member to assist the client with the MDI
• D. Requesting a visiting nurse to follow the client at home

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Adding a spacer device to the MDI canister is the best recommendation in this scenario. The spacer device helps to improve coordination and medication delivery by allowing the client more time to inhale the medication effectively. Nebulized treatments for home care (Choice A) involve a different delivery method and are not directly related to improving coordination with MDIs. Asking a family member to assist (Choice C) may not address the core issue of coordination between releasing the medication and inhalation. Requesting a visiting nurse (Choice D) may not be necessary if the client can improve coordination with the spacer device.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Mild nausea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Increased fatigue
• D. Fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.

5. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

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