Nursing Elites

1. A home health nurse is planning to provide health promotion activities for a group of clients in the community. Which of the following activities is an example of the nurse promoting primary prevention?

• A. Educating clients about the recommended immunization schedule for adults
• B. Teaching clients how to manage chronic illnesses
• C. Providing counseling for depression
• D. Offering support groups for cancer survivors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Educating clients about the recommended immunization schedule for adults. This activity falls under primary prevention, which aims to prevent the onset of illness or injury. Immunizations are a proactive measure to protect individuals from developing certain diseases. Choices B, C, and D involve managing chronic illnesses, providing counseling for mental health issues, and offering support for individuals who have already experienced cancer, respectively. These activities are more aligned with secondary or tertiary prevention, focusing on managing existing conditions or preventing complications in those already affected.

2. The nurse is working on an orthopedic rehabilitation unit that requires lifting and positioning of patients. Which personal injury will the nurse most likely try to prevent?

• A. Arm
• B. Hip
• C. Back
• D. Ankle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Back. Back injuries are common among healthcare workers, especially nurses, due to improper lifting techniques and bending. Working on an orthopedic rehabilitation unit involves frequent lifting and positioning of patients, putting the nurse at risk of back injuries. Preventing back injuries is crucial for maintaining the nurse's health and ability to provide care effectively. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while lifting and positioning patients may involve these body parts, back injuries are most likely to occur due to the strain and stress placed on the back during such activities.

3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client is short of breath and has a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What action should the LPN take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Reposition the client to a high Fowler's position.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's condition.
• D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position should be the first action taken by the LPN. This position helps improve oxygenation by maximizing lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing positioning may not fully optimize oxygen delivery. Notifying the healthcare provider should come after immediate interventions. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing is beneficial but should follow the initial positioning to further assist the client in managing their breathing difficulty.

4. A client with a tracheostomy is being taught by a nurse and their family how to care for the tracheostomy at home. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Use tracheostomy covers when outdoors.
• B. Clean the tracheostomy with alcohol.
• C. Replace the tracheostomy tube every week.
• D. Cover the tracheostomy with a wet cloth when sleeping.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using tracheostomy covers when outdoors is essential to protect the tracheostomy from dust and debris, reducing the risk of infection. Tracheostomy covers help maintain cleanliness and prevent foreign particles from entering the stoma. Choice B is incorrect because cleaning the tracheostomy with alcohol can be too harsh and drying for the skin surrounding the stoma, leading to skin irritation. Choice C is incorrect as tracheostomy tubes are typically replaced only when clinically indicated or as per the healthcare provider's instructions, not routinely every week, to prevent unnecessary risks and complications. Choice D is incorrect as covering the tracheostomy with a wet cloth when sleeping can create a moist environment ideal for bacterial growth, increasing the risk of infection and skin breakdown. It is important to keep the tracheostomy site clean, dry, and protected to maintain optimal hygiene and prevent complications.

5. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) is being treated. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL
• B. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) of 5.0 ng/mL
• C. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
• D. Blood glucose of 180 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL is elevated, indicating myocardial damage, making it the most concerning finding in a client with a myocardial infarction (MI). Troponin is a highly specific marker for cardiac muscle damage, and elevated levels suggest ongoing injury to the heart muscle. While Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) is also a cardiac enzyme, troponin is more specific and sensitive for myocardial damage. Serum potassium and blood glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in MI patients, but in this scenario, the elevated troponin level takes precedence as it directly reflects cardiac injury.

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