Nursing Elites

1. A health program that aims to reduce the incidence of chronic diseases through lifestyle modifications is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention focuses on preventing the development of diseases or injuries before they occur by promoting healthy behaviors and lifestyles. In this scenario, the health program targeting lifestyle modifications to reduce chronic diseases aligns with primary prevention efforts. Choice B, secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice C, tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing diseases to prevent complications. Choice D, quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid the consequences of unnecessary or excessive interventions in healthcare.

2. The client with Raynaud's phenomenon would benefit most by which teaching intervention?

• A. Stop smoking
• B. Keep feet dry
• C. Reduce stress
• D. Avoid caffeine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stop smoking. Smoking causes vasoconstriction, worsening the symptoms of Raynaud's phenomenon. Quitting smoking is crucial in managing this condition effectively. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the pathophysiology of Raynaud's phenomenon. While keeping feet dry and reducing stress can be beneficial for overall health, they are not as directly linked to managing Raynaud's phenomenon as smoking cessation.

3. Which of the following measures the frequency of new cases of the phenomenon during a given period of time?

• A. prevalence rate
• B. proportionate mortality rate
• C. case fatality rate
• D. incidence rate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, incidence rate. Incidence rate measures the frequency of new cases of a phenomenon, providing important information about the risk of developing the condition. Prevalence rate (choice A) reflects both old and new cases, proportionate mortality rate (choice B) is the proportion of deaths due to a specific cause, and case fatality rate (choice C) measures the proportion of deaths among confirmed cases, not just new cases.

4. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Anemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

5. What is the process of enabling people to increase control over and improve their health known as?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Disease prevention
• C. Rehabilitation
• D. Health education

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Health promotion. Health promotion focuses on empowering individuals to take control of their health by promoting healthy behaviors, lifestyles, and environments. It aims to prevent illnesses and enhance overall well-being. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not fully encompass the concept of empowering individuals to improve their health. Disease prevention specifically targets avoiding specific illnesses, rehabilitation focuses on restoring health after an illness or injury, and health education primarily involves imparting knowledge about health-related topics.

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