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Community Health HESI Practice Questions
1. A health program that aims to reduce the incidence of chronic diseases through lifestyle modifications is an example of:
- A. Primary prevention
- B. Secondary prevention
- C. Tertiary prevention
- D. Quaternary prevention
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention focuses on preventing the development of diseases or injuries before they occur by promoting healthy behaviors and lifestyles. In this scenario, the health program targeting lifestyle modifications to reduce chronic diseases aligns with primary prevention efforts. Choice B, secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice C, tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing diseases to prevent complications. Choice D, quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid the consequences of unnecessary or excessive interventions in healthcare.
2. A community health nurse is conducting a neighborhood discussion group about disaster planning. What information regarding the transmission of anthrax should the nurse provide to the group?
- A. Infection is acquired when anthrax spores enter a host.
- B. Mature anthrax bacteria live dormant on inanimate objects.
- C. Spores cannot survive for extended periods outside of a living host.
- D. Anthrax is transmitted by respiratory droplets from person to person.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct information that the nurse should provide to the group is that anthrax infection occurs when spores enter a host. Choice B is incorrect because mature anthrax bacteria do not live dormant on inanimate objects. Choice C is incorrect because anthrax spores can survive for extended periods outside of a living host. Choice D is incorrect because anthrax is not transmitted by respiratory droplets from person to person; it is acquired through spores entering a host.
3. The new graduate nurse interviews for a position in a nursing department of a large health care agency, described by the interviewer as having shared governance. Which of these statements best illustrates the shared governance model?
- A. An appointed board oversees any administrative decisions
- B. Nursing departments share responsibility for client outcomes
- C. Staff groups are appointed to discuss nursing practice and client education issues
- D. Non-nurse managers supervise nursing staff in groups of units
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because shared governance involves nurses and other staff sharing responsibility for decisions related to patient care and outcomes, promoting collaborative practice and shared accountability. Choice A is incorrect as shared governance includes active participation of frontline staff, not just an appointed board. Choice C is incorrect because shared governance goes beyond just discussing issues to actively sharing responsibility for decision-making. Choice D is incorrect as shared governance encourages nurses to have a significant role in decision-making rather than being supervised by non-nurse managers.
4. The family presents several problems. Which of the following criteria is considered in determining the priority health problem?
- A. expected consequence of the problem
- B. cooperation and support of the family
- C. involvement of the family members in the problem
- D. modifiability of the problem
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When determining the priority health problem within a family, one key criterion to consider is the modifiability of the problem. This means assessing whether the health issue can be changed or improved through interventions. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the priority of the health problem within the family. The expected consequence of the problem, cooperation and support of the family, and involvement of family members are important factors but do not specifically address the priority of the health issue based on modifiability.
5. A client comes into the community health center upset and crying stating, “I will die of cancer now that I have this disease.” And then the client hands the nurse a paper with one word written on it: 'Pheochromocytoma.' Which response should the nurse state initially?
- A. 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant). But they may be associated with cancerous tumors in other endocrine glands such as the thyroid (medullary carcinoma of the thyroid).'
- B. 'This problem is diagnosed by blood and urine tests that reveal elevated levels of adrenaline and noradrenaline.'
- C. 'Computerized tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are used to detect an adrenal tumor.'
- D. 'You probably have had episodes of sweating, heart pounding, and headaches.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial response for the nurse to provide in this situation is to offer reassurance. Stating that 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant)' helps to alleviate the client's anxiety and fear of having cancer. This response also establishes a foundation for further discussion about the condition, allowing the nurse to address the client's concerns and provide accurate information. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on the diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma but does not address the client's emotional distress. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses imaging modalities without directly addressing the client's concerns. Choice D is also incorrect as it assumes symptoms without first addressing the client's emotional state and fear of cancer.
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