Nursing Elites

1. The RN is planning care at a team meeting for a 2-month-old child in bilateral leg casts for congenital clubfoot. Which of these suggestions by the PN should be considered the priority nursing goal following cast application?

• A. Infant will experience minimal pain
• B. Muscle spasms will be relieved
• C. Mobility will be managed as tolerated
• D. Tissue perfusion will be maintained

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following cast application for congenital clubfoot in a 2-month-old child, the priority nursing goal should be to maintain tissue perfusion. This is crucial to prevent complications like compartment syndrome and ensure proper healing. While managing pain, relieving muscle spasms, and promoting mobility are important aspects of care, they are secondary to ensuring adequate tissue perfusion in this scenario.

2. A client with tuberculosis is receiving isoniazid (INH). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Isoniazid (INH) can lead to hepatotoxicity, necessitating the monitoring of liver function tests. This adverse effect is characterized by liver damage and dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because isoniazid is not typically associated with hyperglycemia, hypotension, or hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing for signs and symptoms of hepatotoxicity in a client receiving isoniazid.

3. A client is admitted for COPD. Which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Restlessness and confusion
• C. Low-grade fever and cough
• D. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and confusion are signs of hypoxia and hypercapnia in a client with COPD, indicating that the client's condition may be deteriorating rapidly. Immediate attention is necessary to prevent further complications. Nausea and vomiting (Choice A) may be related to various factors but do not directly indicate respiratory distress. Low-grade fever and cough (Choice C) are common in COPD and may not require immediate intervention. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum (Choice D) are typical symptoms of COPD exacerbation but do not signal an immediate need for attention as restlessness and confusion.

4. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

5. During a home visit for a family with a new baby, what should the nurse assess first?

• A. feeding patterns
• B. sleeping arrangements
• C. support system
• D. immunization status

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing feeding patterns is the priority during a home visit for a family with a new baby because it is crucial for the health and growth of the newborn. By evaluating the feeding patterns, the nurse can ensure that the baby is receiving adequate nutrition and address any feeding issues promptly. While sleeping arrangements, support system, and immunization status are important aspects to assess during a home visit, they are not as critical as ensuring the newborn's nutritional needs are being met.

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