Nursing Elites

1. The RN is planning care at a team meeting for a 2-month-old child in bilateral leg casts for congenital clubfoot. Which of these suggestions by the PN should be considered the priority nursing goal following cast application?

• A. Infant will experience minimal pain
• B. Muscle spasms will be relieved
• C. Mobility will be managed as tolerated
• D. Tissue perfusion will be maintained

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following cast application for congenital clubfoot in a 2-month-old child, the priority nursing goal should be to maintain tissue perfusion. This is crucial to prevent complications like compartment syndrome and ensure proper healing. While managing pain, relieving muscle spasms, and promoting mobility are important aspects of care, they are secondary to ensuring adequate tissue perfusion in this scenario.

2. An infant has just returned from surgery for placement of a gastrostomy tube as an initial treatment for tracheoesophageal fistula. The mother asks, 'When can the tube be used for feeding?' The nurse's best response would be which of these comments?

• A. "Feedings can begin in 5 to 7 days."
• B. "The use of the feeding tube can begin immediately."
• C. "The stomach contents and air must be drained first."
• D. "The incision healing must be complete before feeding."

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The stomach contents and air must be drained first.' Before starting feedings through a gastrostomy tube, it is essential to drain the stomach contents and air. This process helps prevent complications and ensures the proper functioning of the tube after placement. Choice A is incorrect because initiating feedings within 5 to 7 days may lead to complications if the stomach is not adequately prepared. Choice B is incorrect as feeding should not begin immediately to allow for proper preparation of the tube and the stomach. Choice D is incorrect because although incision healing is important, draining the stomach contents and air is a more immediate concern to prevent complications.

3. Which of the following activities is an example of tertiary prevention?

• A. Health education
• B. Regular exercise
• C. Screening tests
• D. Physical therapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, physical therapy. Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and treatment to prevent complications from a disease or injury. Physical therapy falls under this category as it helps individuals recover and improve functionality after an illness or injury. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of tertiary prevention. Health education (choice A) is more aligned with primary prevention by promoting healthy behaviors to prevent disease onset. Regular exercise (choice B) can be categorized under both primary and secondary prevention as it aims to prevent disease development and detect conditions early. Screening tests (choice C) are part of secondary prevention as they aim to detect diseases at an early stage for prompt treatment.

4. To be an effective educator, you should:

• A. listen to people's problems and decide on the approach to meet their needs
• B. select the best strategy for health action for people to implement
• C. direct people's efforts to implement community-based projects
• D. simply tell your clients what to do for their problems/needs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to select the best strategy for health action for people to implement because it empowers the community to take ownership of their health. Listening to people's problems (Choice A) is important, but the effectiveness lies in empowering them to implement solutions. Directing people's efforts (Choice C) can be directive and may not foster community ownership. Just telling clients what to do (Choice D) does not promote active participation and empowerment.

5. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Anemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

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