Nursing Elites

1. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Which side effect should the nurse educate the client about?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Sexual dysfunction.
• C. Increased appetite.
• D. Weight gain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexual dysfunction. Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of SSRIs. While hypertension (A) can occur with other medications, it is not typically associated with SSRIs. Increased appetite (C) and weight gain (D) are potential side effects of some antidepressants, but sexual dysfunction is more specific to SSRIs. Therefore, the nurse should educate the client about the risk of sexual dysfunction when taking an SSRI.

2. A client with schizophrenia is being discharged with a prescription for risperidone (Risperdal). What is the most important information for the nurse to provide?

• A. You need to have regular blood tests while taking this medication.
• B. Report any muscle stiffness or unusual movements immediately.
• C. Avoid foods high in tyramine while taking this medication.
• D. This medication may cause weight loss.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Report any muscle stiffness or unusual movements immediately." This information is crucial because muscle stiffness or unusual movements may indicate extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), a potential side effect of risperidone that requires immediate attention. Choice A is less critical as regular blood tests are important but not as urgent as identifying EPS. Choice C is irrelevant as tyramine interactions are not associated with risperidone. Choice D is incorrect as weight gain is more common than weight loss with risperidone.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The LPN/LVN observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Ask the client to sit down and relax.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication.
• C. Encourage the client to talk about what is making him anxious.
• D. Monitor the client for adverse reactions to the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication is the first action the nurse should take to manage symptoms of anxiety in a client being treated with haloperidol. The priority is to address the client's escalating anxiety and pacing behavior, which can be managed effectively by providing additional antipsychotic medication. Asking the client to sit down and relax (Choice A) may not be effective if the anxiety is due to inadequate medication levels. Encouraging the client to talk about what is making him anxious (Choice C) may not be beneficial in this acute situation and can be considered after addressing the immediate need for symptom management. Monitoring for adverse reactions (Choice D) is important but is not the first action to take when the client is showing signs of increasing anxiety and agitation.

4. Which statement best demonstrates the nurse's role in ensuring that each client's rights are respected?

• A. Autonomy is a fundamental right for each client.
• B. Client rights are guaranteed by both state and federal laws.
• C. Being respectful and concerned will ensure attentiveness to clients' rights.
• D. Regardless of the client's condition, nurses must respect client rights.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The statement 'Being respectful and concerned will ensure attentiveness to clients' rights' best demonstrates the nurse's role in ensuring that each client's rights are respected. This choice emphasizes the importance of being attentive and considerate towards clients to uphold their rights. Choice A is too general and lacks the direct connection to the nurse's role. Choice B highlights the legal aspect but does not specifically address the nurse's role. Choice D, although true, is not as comprehensive as choice C in describing the nurse's active role in respecting client rights.

5. The nurse plans to help an 18-year-old female intellectually disabled client ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy. When the nurse tells the client it is time to get out of bed, the client becomes angry and tells the nurse, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

• A. Your healthcare provider has prescribed ambulation on the first postoperative day.
• B. You must ambulate to avoid complications that could cause more discomfort than ambulating.
• C. I know how you feel. You're angry about having to ambulate, but this will help you get well.
• D. I'll be back in 30 minutes to help you get out of bed and walk around the room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: (D) provides a 'cooling off' period, is firm, direct, non-threatening, and avoids arguing with the client. (A) is avoiding responsibility by referring to the healthcare provider. (B) is trying to reason with an intellectually disabled client and is threatening the client with 'complications.' (C) is telling the client how she feels (angry), and the nurse does not really 'know' how this client feels, unless the nurse is also intellectually disabled and has also just had an appendectomy.

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