Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes experiences Somogyi's effect. To prevent this complication, the nurse should instruct the client to:

• A. Take insulin at 2:00 PM each day
• B. Engage in physical activity daily
• C. Increase the dose of regular insulin
• D. Eat a protein and carbohydrate snack at bedtime

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Somogyi effect, also known as rebound hyperglycemia, occurs as a response to nighttime hypoglycemia. Eating a protein and carbohydrate snack at bedtime can help prevent this by stabilizing blood sugar levels throughout the night. Instructing the client to take insulin at 2:00 PM each day (Choice A) may not directly address the nighttime hypoglycemia concern. Engaging in physical activity daily (Choice B) is generally beneficial for diabetes management but may not specifically prevent Somogyi's effect. Increasing the dose of regular insulin (Choice C) without addressing the nighttime hypoglycemia issue can exacerbate the problem.

2. A nurse reviews the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?

• A. ST depression
• B. Inverted T wave
• C. Prominent U wave
• D. Tall peaked T waves

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Tall peaked T waves.' Tall peaked T waves are characteristic ECG changes associated with hyperkalemia. In hyperkalemia, the elevated potassium levels affect the myocardium, leading to changes in the ECG. ST depression (Choice A) is more commonly associated with myocardial ischemia or infarction. Inverted T wave (Choice B) is seen in conditions like myocardial ischemia or CNS events. Prominent U wave (Choice C) is typically associated with hypokalemia or certain medications. Therefore, in this scenario, the nurse would expect to note tall peaked T waves on the electrocardiogram due to the elevated potassium level.

3. Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing.

• A. Fine motor coordination: The use of the fingers
• B. Stereognosis: Equal hearing in both ears
• C. Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin
• D. Gross motor function: The use of the lower limbs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin. Two-point discrimination assesses the ability to discern two points touched simultaneously on the skin. Fine motor coordination (Choice A) refers to the precise movements of small muscles, not related to tactile sensation. Stereognosis (Choice B) is the ability to recognize objects by touch, not equal hearing in both ears. Gross motor function (Choice D) involves the coordination of large muscle groups, not specifically related to tactile sensation testing.

4. To resolve a conflict between staff members regarding potential changes in policy, a nurse manager decides to implement the changes she prefers regardless of the feelings of those who oppose those changes. Which of the following conflict-resolution strategies is the nurse manager using?

• A. Competing
• B. Collaborating
• C. Compromising
• D. Cooperating

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager is utilizing the competing conflict-resolution strategy. Competing involves making decisions based on one's preferences without considering the opinions or feelings of others. In this scenario, the nurse manager is unilaterally implementing changes despite opposition, demonstrating a competitive approach. Collaborating involves working together to find a mutually beneficial solution, compromising involves finding a middle ground acceptable to both parties, and cooperating involves working together towards a shared goal. These options are not applicable in this situation as the nurse manager is imposing her preferred changes without regard for others' input.

5. A nurse working on a med-surg unit is managing the care of four clients. The nurse should schedule an interdisciplinary conference for which of the following clients?

• A. A client who is at risk for pressure ulcers and has an albumin level of 4.2 g/dL
• B. A client with type 1 DM who uses an insulin pump
• C. A client who is receiving heparin and has an aPTT of 34 seconds
• D. A client with orthostatic hypotension receiving IV fluids

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should schedule an interdisciplinary conference for a client who is receiving heparin and has an aPTT of 34 seconds to ensure comprehensive care coordination. In this case, the need for a conference may be to discuss potential adjustments in heparin therapy, monitor for adverse effects, or ensure proper anticoagulation levels. Choices A, B, and D do not specifically indicate the need for interdisciplinary collaboration related to the client's condition or treatment. Therefore, they are not the priority for scheduling an interdisciplinary conference.

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