HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What should the LPN/LVN include in the teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication with food to avoid nausea.
- B. You may start feeling better within 1 to 2 weeks.
- C. The medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective.
- D. You may experience side effects such as dry mouth or dizziness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Teaching the client that the medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective is crucial as it helps set realistic expectations. While choice A is important to reduce nausea, it is not the most critical information to provide initially. Choice B is incorrect as improvement usually occurs after several weeks of treatment, not within 1 to 2 weeks. Choice D is also relevant, but informing about the full effectiveness of the medication is more important for long-term adherence.
2. The client is planning discharge for a male client with schizophrenia. The client insists that he is returning to his apartment, although the healthcare provider informed him that he will be moving to a boarding home. What is the most important nursing diagnosis for discharge planning?
- A. Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.
- B. Ineffective coping related to inadequate support.
- C. Social isolation related to difficult interactions.
- D. Self-care deficit related to cognitive impairment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best nursing diagnosis is (A) because the client is unable to acknowledge the move to a boarding home. While (B, C, and D) are potential nursing diagnoses, denial is the most critical as it is a defense mechanism preventing the client from addressing his feelings regarding the change in living arrangements.
3. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?
- A. Menstruation onset at age 9.
- B. Contraceptive method includes condoms only.
- C. Menstrual cycle occurs every 35 days.
- D. 'Black-out' after one drink last night on a date.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.
4. A client with a history of alcohol dependence tells the nurse that he has been sober for three months but has recently started drinking again. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Ask the client why he started drinking again.
- B. Provide information about support groups for sobriety.
- C. Discuss the consequences of drinking on his health.
- D. Encourage the client to express his feelings about relapse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging the client to express his feelings about relapse is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation. This approach allows the nurse to address the underlying emotions and factors contributing to the relapse. Choice A, asking the client why he started drinking again, may come across as judgmental and might not be as effective in exploring the client's emotions. Choice B, providing information about support groups, is important but should come after addressing the client's current emotional state. Choice C, discussing the consequences of drinking, may be necessary at some point, but initially, the focus should be on the client's feelings and emotions surrounding the relapse.
5. An older homeless client visits the psychiatric clinic to obtain a prescription renewal for alprazolam (Xanax). During the health assessment, the client complains of chest pain. Which action should the RN take first?
- A. Refer the client to the cardiology unit.
- B. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
- C. Assess the client for substance abuse.
- D. Determine if Xanax was taken recently.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Determining if Xanax was taken recently is crucial as it helps assess whether the chest pain is related to medication use or another issue, guiding appropriate immediate care. This action can provide essential information to address the client's current complaint effectively. Referring the client to the cardiology unit (Choice A) may be premature without assessing the Xanax use first. While obtaining the client's blood pressure (Choice B) is important, it is not the priority when the client presents with chest pain and a history of taking Xanax. Assessing the client for substance abuse (Choice C) is also important but is secondary to first determining the potential link between Xanax and the chest pain.
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