Nursing Elites

1. A female client with depression attends group and states that she sometimes misses her medication appointments because she feels very anxious about riding the bus. Which statement is the nurse's best response?

• A. Can your case manager take you to your appointments?
• B. Take your medication for anxiety before you ride the bus.
• C. Let's talk about what happens when you feel very anxious.
• D. What are some ways that you can cope with your anxiety?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response is to explore ways for the client to cope with anxiety (D). The nurse should encourage problem-solving rather than dependence on the case manager (A) for transportation. While taking medication for anxiety before riding the bus may be helpful, addressing coping strategies should come first (B). Although discussing the feelings of anxiety can be therapeutic (C), the most appropriate approach is to engage the client in finding ways to manage her anxiety effectively.

2. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take with a manic depressive male client who becomes loud and verbally aggressive towards a nurse?

• A. Have the staff escort the client to his room.
• B. Tell the client that his behavior will be recorded in his record.
• C. Redirect the client by asking him to engage in a game with peers.
• D. Review the medication record for an antipsychotic drug.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In dealing with a manic depressive client who is being verbally aggressive, the best initial action for the nurse is to redirect the client by engaging him in a more constructive activity, such as playing card games with peers. This approach can help de-escalate the situation, shift the client's focus positively, and provide a distraction from the current behavior. Having the staff escort the client to his room may escalate the situation further. Threatening to record the behavior in his record is not likely to be effective in managing the immediate situation. Reviewing the medication record for an antipsychotic drug is important but would not be the best initial action in this scenario when the client is being verbally aggressive.

3. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Encourage the client to perform facial exercises.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
• D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.

4. In the described scenario, a manic client threatens a nurse with physical violence after being told they cannot have a stripper perform. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Orient the client to time, person, and place
• B. Tell the client that the behavior is inappropriate
• C. Escort the manic client to her room, with assistance
• D. Tell the client that smoking privileges are revoked for 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, where the manic client becomes verbally abusive and threatens physical violence, the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to escort the client to her room with assistance. This action helps ensure the safety of both the client and the nurse, while also providing a controlled environment that can help de-escalate the situation. Choices A and B do not address the immediate safety concerns presented by the client's behavior. Choice D, revoking smoking privileges, is not directly related to the client's current behavior and does not address the threat of violence.

5. For a female client with major depressive disorder reporting feelings of hopelessness and helplessness, what is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to join a support group.
• B. Refer the client for cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT).
• C. Assess the client's risk for suicide.
• D. Suggest the client participate in daily exercise.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client's risk for suicide. When a client expresses feelings of hopelessness and helplessness, it indicates a high risk of self-harm or suicide. Therefore, the priority intervention should be to assess the client's safety. Encouraging the client to join a support group (choice A) may be beneficial but not the priority at this time. Referring the client for cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) (choice B) and suggesting daily exercise (choice D) are important interventions in managing depression but assessing the risk for suicide takes precedence due to the immediate safety concern.

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