HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A female client with depression attends group and states that she sometimes misses her medication appointments because she feels very anxious about riding the bus. Which statement is the nurse's best response?
- A. Can your case manager take you to your appointments?
- B. Take your medication for anxiety before you ride the bus.
- C. Let's talk about what happens when you feel very anxious.
- D. What are some ways that you can cope with your anxiety?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response is to explore ways for the client to cope with anxiety (D). The nurse should encourage problem-solving rather than dependence on the case manager (A) for transportation. While taking medication for anxiety before riding the bus may be helpful, addressing coping strategies should come first (B). Although discussing the feelings of anxiety can be therapeutic (C), the most appropriate approach is to engage the client in finding ways to manage her anxiety effectively.
2. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in a quiet activity.
- B. Provide a safe environment and limit stimuli.
- C. Administer a sedative to help the client sleep.
- D. Discuss the consequences of her risky behaviors.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.
3. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with depression who has been prescribed an SSRI. The client reports feeling more energy but is still feeling hopeless. What should the nurse be most concerned about?
- A. That the client may act on suicidal thoughts.
- B. That the client may engage in impulsive behavior.
- C. That the client may be experiencing the side effects of the medication.
- D. That the client may be at risk for developing serotonin syndrome.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should be most concerned that the client may act on suicidal thoughts. An increase in energy combined with persistent feelings of hopelessness can indicate a higher risk of suicide. While impulsive behavior can be a concern, the primary worry should be the client's safety regarding suicidal ideation. Side effects of the medication are important to monitor but do not take precedence over the risk of self-harm. Serotonin syndrome is a potential concern with SSRIs, but in this scenario, the client's mental health and safety are the immediate priority.
4. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?
- A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
- B. Tardive dyskinesia
- C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
- D. Drug-induced parkinsonism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.
5. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage group activities to decrease isolation.
- B. Provide a structured environment with routine activities.
- C. Limit the client's physical activity to prevent exhaustion.
- D. Allow the client to choose activities freely.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may exhibit excessive energy, impulsivity, and disorganized behavior. Providing a structured environment with routine activities is the most appropriate nursing intervention. This approach can help regulate the client's behavior, reduce impulsivity, and prevent engaging in potentially harmful activities. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may exacerbate the client's symptoms due to overstimulation. Limiting physical activity (Choice C) may not address the need for structure and routine during a manic episode. Allowing the client to choose activities freely (Choice D) can lead to impulsive decision-making and may not provide the necessary boundaries required to manage the manic symptoms effectively.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access