HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. To lower blood pressure
- B. To improve appetite
- C. To increase red blood cell production
- D. To reduce fluid retention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To increase red blood cell production.' Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells to treat anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy is primarily used to address anemia by increasing the production of red blood cells rather than lowering blood pressure, improving appetite, or reducing fluid retention.
2. A client with a history of pulmonary embolism is on anticoagulant therapy. What should the nurse monitor regularly?
- A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Monitoring INR is essential in clients on anticoagulant therapy to ensure the blood's clotting time is within the therapeutic range, preventing further embolic events or excessive bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B), blood pressure (Choice C), and temperature (Choice D) is important for various other conditions but is not directly related to anticoagulant therapy for a client with a history of pulmonary embolism.
3. A client with a diagnosis of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
- A. Take the medication in the morning on an empty stomach.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime.
- C. Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- D. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide to a client prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This is crucial to help prevent esophageal irritation. Option A is correct as alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Option C is incorrect because the client should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication, not lie down. Option B is incorrect and a duplicate of Option A.
4. What should the nurse prioritize when providing discharge instructions to a client with a new colostomy?
- A. Skin care around the stoma site
- B. The schedule for colostomy bag replacement
- C. Techniques for odor control
- D. Dietary modifications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: Skin care around the stoma site. Proper skin care around the stoma site is crucial for preventing skin irritation and infection, which are common issues for patients with new colostomies. While the schedule for colostomy bag replacement (Option B) is important, it is not the priority during initial discharge instructions. Techniques for odor control (Option C) are relevant but secondary to skin care for a new colostomy. Dietary modifications (Option D) may be discussed later but are not the priority at this stage.
5. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?
- A. Decreased sexual libido
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Quickening
- D. Nocturia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.
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