Nursing Elites

1. A client who is nonambulatory notifies the nurse that his trash can is on fire. After the nurse confirms the fire, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Activate the emergency fire alarm
• B. Extinguish the fire
• C. Evacuate the client
• D. Confine the fire

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next, after confirming the fire, is to evacuate the client. In a fire situation, following the RACE mnemonic, the priority is to rescue or evacuate clients to ensure their safety. Activating the emergency fire alarm (Choice A) is important to alert others and the fire department, but evacuating the client takes precedence. Extinguishing the fire (Choice B) may put the nurse and client at risk and is best left to trained personnel. Confining the fire (Choice D) is not the nurse's responsibility; the focus should be on ensuring the client's safety by evacuating them.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who has a positive Chvostek's sign. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Decreased calcium
• B. Elevated potassium
• C. Increased sodium
• D. Low hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign is a clinical indication of low calcium levels, known as hypocalcemia. This sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve anterior to the ear, resulting in facial muscle twitching. The correct laboratory finding associated with a positive Chvostek's sign is decreased calcium. Elevated potassium (Choice B) is not typically associated with Chvostek's sign but can be seen in conditions like renal failure. Increased sodium (Choice C) is not directly related to Chvostek's sign and is more commonly associated with hypernatremia. Low hemoglobin (Choice D) is not the expected laboratory finding in a client with a positive Chvostek's sign; instead, it suggests anemia, which is unrelated to this clinical manifestation.

3. The charge nurse has a health care team that consists of 1 PN, 1 unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), and 1 PN nursing student. Which assignment should be questioned by the nurse manager?

• A. An admission at the change of shifts with atrial fibrillation and heart failure - PN
• B. Client who had a major stroke 6 days ago - PN nursing student
• C. A child with burns who has packed cells and albumin IV running - charge nurse
• D. An elderly client who had a myocardial infarction a week ago - UAP

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assigning an admission with atrial fibrillation and heart failure to a PN is not appropriate. This complex case requires more advanced skills and should not be managed by a PN without adequate support. The PN may not have the necessary training or expertise to handle such a critical situation effectively. Choice B is a suitable assignment for a PN nursing student as they can handle a client who had a major stroke 6 days ago. Choice C is also appropriate as a child with burns receiving packed cells and albumin IV running can be managed by the charge nurse. Choice D is within the scope of practice for a UAP since an elderly client post-myocardial infarction a week ago may require basic care and assistance.

4. A nurse in a provider's office is preparing to assess a young adult client's musculoskeletal system as part of a comprehensive physical examination. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Concave thoracic spine posteriorly
• B. Exaggerated lumbar curvature
• C. Concave lumbar spine posteriorly
• D. Exaggerated thoracic curvature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a young adult's musculoskeletal system, the nurse should expect an exaggerated lumbar curvature (lordosis). This is a normal finding in young adults due to the natural curvature of the spine. Concave thoracic spine posteriorly (choice A) and concave lumbar spine posteriorly (choice C) are not typical findings as the spine should have normal curvatures. Exaggerated thoracic curvature (choice D) is also not a typical finding in young adults.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.

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