Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is still withdrawn, unkempt, and unmotivated to get out of bed. A mental health aide asks the nurse why the client is this way after being on fluphenazine (Prolix) 10 mg for 7 days. The LPN/LVN should tell the health aide:

• A. Prolixin is the most effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
• B. The client will be less withdrawn and unmotivated when the Prolixin takes effect.
• C. The client's Prolixin dose probably needs to be increased again.
• D. Lack of motivation is a common side effect of the Prolixin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prolixin is more effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, rather than negative symptoms like withdrawal and lack of motivation.

2. A client on the psychiatric unit appears to imitate a certain nurse on the unit. The client seeks out this particular nurse and imitates her mannerisms. Which defense mechanism does the nurse recognize in this client?

• A. Sublimation.
• B. Identification.
• C. Introjection.
• D. Repression.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Identification is the correct answer. It is a defense mechanism where an individual unconsciously models themselves after someone they admire or feel close to. In this scenario, the client is imitating the nurse's mannerisms, indicating identification. Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Introjection is the internalization of external attitudes or voices, while repression involves suppressing unwanted thoughts or desires.

3. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

• A. Describes life as without purpose.
• B. Exhibits an increase in sweating.
• C. States is often fatigued and drowsy.
• D. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Expressing that life is without purpose can indicate deepening depression or suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. While sweating, fatigue, drowsiness, nausea, and loss of appetite can be side effects of duloxetine (Cymbalta), they do not indicate the same level of urgency as a statement suggesting deepening depression or suicidal ideation.

4. The nurse suspects child abuse when assessing a 3-year-old boy and noticing several small, round burns on his legs and trunk that might be the result of cigarette burns. Which parental behavior provides the greatest validation for such suspicions?

• A. The parents' explanation of how the burns occurred is different from the child's explanation of how they occurred.
• B. The parents seem to dismiss the severity of the child's burns, saying they are very small and have not posed any problem.
• C. The parents become very anxious when the nurse suggests that the child may need to be admitted for further evaluation.
• D. The parents tell the nurse that the child was burned in a house fire which is incompatible with the nurse's observation of the type of burn.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: (D) provides the most validation for suspecting child abuse. The parent's explanation (subjective data) that the child was burned in a house fire is incompatible with the objective data observed by the nurse (small, round burns on the legs and trunk). (A) relies on subjective data, and the child's explanation might not accurately reflect the situation due to various factors like age or fear. The apparent lack of concern from the parents (B) is inconclusive as the nurse's interpretation of their reaction could be subjective. While parental anxiety (C) could hint at potential child abuse, it's important to note that most parents would naturally be anxious about their child's hospitalization, making it a less definitive indicator compared to the inconsistency in the explanation provided by the parents in option (D).

5. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Encourage the client to perform facial exercises.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
• D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.

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