Nursing Elites

1. A female client refuses to take an oral hypoglycemic agent because she believes that the drug is being administered as part of an elaborate plan by the Mafia to harm her. Which nursing intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Reassure the client that no one will harm her while she is in the hospital.
• B. Ask the healthcare provider to give the client the medication.
• C. Explain the importance of taking the diabetic medication.
• D. Reassess the client's mental status for thought processes and content.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Reassessing the client's mental status is the most important intervention as it is crucial to address the client's delusional thinking. By assessing the client's thought processes and content, the nurse can gain insight into the client's beliefs and tailor interventions accordingly. Reassuring the client that no harm will come to her, asking the healthcare provider to give the medication, or simply explaining the importance of taking the medication may not effectively address the underlying issue of delusional beliefs.

2. A nurse is assessing a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) who reports difficulty concentrating and feeling restless. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to avoid caffeine.
• B. Suggest the client take up a new hobby.
• C. Teach the client deep breathing exercises.
• D. Refer the client to group therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Teaching deep breathing exercises is the most appropriate intervention for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) experiencing difficulty concentrating and restlessness. Deep breathing exercises are a proven technique to help manage anxiety symptoms, promote relaxation, and improve concentration. Encouraging the client to avoid caffeine (Choice A) may be beneficial, but it is not the most direct intervention for the reported symptoms. Suggesting the client take up a new hobby (Choice B) may be helpful for overall well-being but does not directly address the immediate symptoms. Referring the client to group therapy (Choice D) may be beneficial in the long term, but teaching deep breathing exercises is more immediate and can be easily implemented by the client in various settings.

3. A client with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine (Prozac). What should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?

• A. It may take 4-6 weeks for the medication to be effective.
• B. You should take this medication at bedtime.
• C. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
• D. You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It may take 4-6 weeks for the medication to be effective." SSRIs like fluoxetine typically take 4-6 weeks to reach their full effect, so clients should be informed to expect a gradual improvement in symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because fluoxetine is usually taken in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid consuming dairy products while taking fluoxetine. Choice D is incorrect because clients should never stop taking antidepressants abruptly, as it can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition.

4. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine (Zyprexa). What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Weight gain
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is known to cause significant weight gain in patients. This side effect is crucial to monitor because it can lead to metabolic syndrome, diabetes, and cardiovascular issues. Monitoring the client's weight regularly and providing appropriate dietary guidance is essential. Hypotension (choice A), dry mouth (choice C), and tachycardia (choice D) are not commonly associated with olanzapine use and are not the primary side effects to monitor in this case.

5. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

• A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
• B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
• C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
• D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

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