a female client refuses to take an oral hypoglycemic agent because she believes that the drug is being administered as part of an elaborate plan by th
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HESI Mental Health Practice Questions

1. A female client refuses to take an oral hypoglycemic agent because she believes that the drug is being administered as part of an elaborate plan by the Mafia to harm her. Which nursing intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Reassessing the client's mental status is the most important intervention as it is crucial to address the client's delusional thinking. By assessing the client's thought processes and content, the nurse can gain insight into the client's beliefs and tailor interventions accordingly. Reassuring the client that no harm will come to her, asking the healthcare provider to give the medication, or simply explaining the importance of taking the medication may not effectively address the underlying issue of delusional beliefs.

2. A male client with schizophrenia who is taking fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin decanoate) is being discharged in the morning. A repeat dose of medication is scheduled for 20 days after discharge. The client tells the nurse that he is going on vacation in the Bahamas and will return in 18 days. Which statement by the client indicates a need for health teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Photosensitivity is a side effect of Prolixin, and a vacation in the Bahamas (with its tropical island climate) increases the client's risk of experiencing this side effect. Therefore, the client should be advised to avoid direct sun exposure. Choice A indicates a need for health teaching as the client plans to return from vacation in 18 days, which is earlier than the scheduled dose of Prolixin at 20 days after discharge. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate accurate knowledge. Choice B is important because alcohol can interact with Prolixin. Choice C is relevant as it mentions signs of agranulocytosis, a potential side effect of Prolixin. Choice D is correct as benztropine mesylate is used to prevent extrapyramidal symptoms associated with Prolixin.

3. The nurse plans to help an 18-year-old female intellectually disabled client ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy. When the nurse tells the client it is time to get out of bed, the client becomes angry and tells the nurse, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: (D) provides a 'cooling off' period, is firm, direct, non-threatening, and avoids arguing with the client. (A) is avoiding responsibility by referring to the healthcare provider. (B) is trying to reason with an intellectually disabled client and is threatening the client with 'complications.' (C) is telling the client how she feels (angry), and the nurse does not really 'know' how this client feels, unless the nurse is also intellectually disabled and has also just had an appendectomy.

4. A 25-year-old female client has been particularly restless, and the nurse finds her trying to leave the psychiatric unit. She tells the nurse, 'Please let me go! I must leave because the secret police are after me.' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best response for the nurse is to offer presence and a safe environment without validating the delusion or arguing with the client. By inviting the client to the room and offering to sit with her, the nurse is providing support and reassurance. Choice A is incorrect because directly denying the client's belief may escalate the situation. Choice B is inappropriate as it dismisses the client's concerns without addressing the underlying issue. Choice C acknowledges the client's feelings but does not provide immediate support or safety, unlike Choice D which offers both.

5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours a day arranging and rearranging items in their room. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings is the most therapeutic intervention for a client with OCD spending excessive time on compulsive behaviors. By expressing their feelings, the client can explore the underlying anxiety that drives the compulsion. This intervention also provides an opportunity for the nurse to offer support and help the client develop coping strategies.\n Choice A, distracting the client with another activity, may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of the behavior.\n Choice B, allowing the client to continue the behavior, does not promote therapeutic progress and may perpetuate the compulsion.\n Choice C, setting a time limit for the behavior, may create additional stress for the client and does not address the underlying emotional issues associated with OCD.

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