HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Questions
1. A female client refuses to take an oral hypoglycemic agent because she believes that the drug is being administered as part of an elaborate plan by the Mafia to harm her. Which nursing intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Reassure the client that no one will harm her while she is in the hospital.
- B. Ask the healthcare provider to give the client the medication.
- C. Explain the importance of taking the diabetic medication.
- D. Reassess the client's mental status for thought processes and content.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Reassessing the client's mental status is the most important intervention as it is crucial to address the client's delusional thinking. By assessing the client's thought processes and content, the nurse can gain insight into the client's beliefs and tailor interventions accordingly. Reassuring the client that no harm will come to her, asking the healthcare provider to give the medication, or simply explaining the importance of taking the medication may not effectively address the underlying issue of delusional beliefs.
2. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the LPN/LVN take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.
- C. Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
- D. Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness, it could indicate lithium toxicity. The appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to notify the healthcare provider immediately of these symptoms before the next administration of the drug. This prompt communication is crucial to ensure that the healthcare provider can assess the situation, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and prevent potential complications associated with lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because administering an antidote should be based on the healthcare provider's assessment. Option C is incorrect as these symptoms are not normal side effects and could indicate a serious issue. Option D is incorrect because refusing to administer the drug without consulting the healthcare provider could delay necessary interventions.
3. At the first meeting of a group of older adults at a daycare center for the elderly, the LPN/LVN asks one of the members what kinds of things she would like to do with the group. The older woman shrugs her shoulders and says, 'You tell me, you're the leader.' What is the best response for the nurse to make?
- A. Yes, I am the leader today. Would you like to be the leader tomorrow?
- B. Yes, I will be leading this group. What would you like to accomplish during this time?
- C. Yes, I have been assigned to be the leader of this group. I will be here for the next six weeks.
- D. Yes, I am the leader. You seem angry about not being the leader yourself.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is choice B: 'Yes, I will be leading this group. What would you like to accomplish during this time?' This response acknowledges the member's comment and encourages her to share her interests, promoting engagement and active participation in group activities. Choice A is not as inclusive and may not foster collaboration within the group. Choice C focuses more on the nurse's assignment rather than addressing the member's input. Choice D assumes emotions that were not expressed by the group member and does not encourage open communication.
4. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine (Zyprexa). What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Weight gain
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is known to cause significant weight gain in patients. This side effect is crucial to monitor because it can lead to metabolic syndrome, diabetes, and cardiovascular issues. Monitoring the client's weight regularly and providing appropriate dietary guidance is essential. Hypotension (choice A), dry mouth (choice C), and tachycardia (choice D) are not commonly associated with olanzapine use and are not the primary side effects to monitor in this case.
5. A teenaged client, a heroin addict, is admitted to the unit for detoxification. What intervention is most important for the nurse to initiate during the first 24 hours after admission?
- A. Assign the client to a teen support group.
- B. Assess intake and output.
- C. Monitor for wheezing and apnea.
- D. Limit visitors to family members only.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing intake and output is crucial during the first 24 hours after admission for detoxification. This helps the nurse monitor the client's hydration status and kidney function as the body goes through withdrawal from heroin. Option A is incorrect because joining a support group is beneficial but may not be the priority in the initial phase of detoxification. Option C, monitoring for wheezing and apnea, is important but not the most critical intervention during the first 24 hours. Option D, limiting visitors to family members only, is not directly related to the immediate needs of assessing intake and output.
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