Nursing Elites

1. In the emergency department, a child is admitted for accidental ingestion of a poison. The practical nurse (PN) should know that inducing vomiting is recommended for which child?

• A. An 8-month-old who ingested four to six ibuprofen tablets
• B. A 3-year-old who drank an unknown amount of charcoal lighter fluid
• C. A 16-month-old who ingested 2 ounces of acetaminophen elixir
• D. A 2-year-old who ate a handful of automatic dishwasher detergent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inducing emesis is recommended for the child who ingested a large dose of acetaminophen elixir because this medication is hepatotoxic. Acetaminophen overdose can lead to severe liver damage, and prompt removal from the stomach can help reduce absorption and potential harm.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Nausea
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation, can lead to toxicity manifesting as various cardiac dysrhythmias, with bradycardia being a notable indicator. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial as it can indicate the need for dosage adjustment or discontinuation of digoxin to prevent adverse effects. Tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity, making them incorrect choices for monitoring in a client receiving this medication.

3. A client with a productive cough and fever has been diagnosed with bacterial pneumonia and is being admitted to the unit from the emergency room. Which intervention should the practical nurse ensure has been done prior to the administration of antibiotics?

• A. Sputum specimen
• B. Set of vital signs
• C. Electrocardiogram
• D. Glucometer check

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before initiating antibiotic therapy in a client with bacterial pneumonia, obtaining a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity is essential. This helps identify the specific bacteria causing the infection and guides the selection of the most effective antibiotic treatment.

4. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential side effect of buspirone is drowsiness. It is important for clients to be informed about this side effect, as it can affect their ability to perform tasks that require full alertness, such as driving. Clients should be advised to avoid activities that require mental alertness until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth is a common side effect of some other medications used for anxiety, such as benzodiazepines. Nausea and headache are not typically associated with buspirone use.

5. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Bone marrow suppression
• B. Increased risk of infection
• C. Liver toxicity
• D. Kidney stones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone marrow suppression. Methotrexate, commonly used in rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, reducing the production of blood cells and increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia is crucial to detect bone marrow suppression early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while methotrexate can increase the risk of infection, liver toxicity, and kidney issues, the primary concern and most significant adverse effect to monitor for is bone marrow suppression due to its impact on blood cell production.

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