Nursing Elites

1. In the emergency department, a child is admitted for accidental ingestion of a poison. The practical nurse (PN) should know that inducing vomiting is recommended for which child?

• A. An 8-month-old who ingested four to six ibuprofen tablets
• B. A 3-year-old who drank an unknown amount of charcoal lighter fluid
• C. A 16-month-old who ingested 2 ounces of acetaminophen elixir
• D. A 2-year-old who ate a handful of automatic dishwasher detergent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inducing emesis is recommended for the child who ingested a large dose of acetaminophen elixir because this medication is hepatotoxic. Acetaminophen overdose can lead to severe liver damage, and prompt removal from the stomach can help reduce absorption and potential harm.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer, the nurse should monitor for hypocalcemia. Sevelamer works by binding dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to decreased calcium absorption and potentially cause hypocalcemia.

3. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed valproate. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Hair loss
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. Valproate is known to cause weight gain as a common adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's weight regularly while on this medication to detect and address any changes that may occur.

4. A client who received a prescription for cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion for dry eyes asks the practical nurse (PN) if it is safe to continue using artificial tears. What information should the PN provide?

• A. Avoid using artificial tears because they decrease the efficacy of cyclosporine.
• B. Discontinue the use of both products if transient blurring occurs after administration.
• C. Allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears.
• D. Discontinue the use of cyclosporine and artificial tears when tear production reaches a normal level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears. Cyclosporine, an ophthalmic emulsion that increases tear production, can be used in conjunction with artificial tears as long as the products are administered 15 minutes apart. This interval helps to prevent any potential interactions between the two products and ensures optimal effectiveness of cyclosporine for treating dry eyes.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed edoxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Edoxaban is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting clot formation, thereby increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or gastrointestinal bleeding, to prevent potential complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because edoxaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding or affect the risk of infection; its primary concern is the potential for bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties.

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