Nursing Elites

1. Which procedure is used to detect neural tube defects such as spina bifida and certain chromosomal abnormalities?

• A. Artificial insemination
• B. Amniocentesis
• C. Endometriosis
• D. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay. This blood test measures the level of AFP in a pregnant woman's blood, aiding in the detection of neural tube defects and certain chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. Choice A, artificial insemination, is a method used to facilitate fertilization and is not related to detecting fetal abnormalities. Choice B, amniocentesis, involves collecting amniotic fluid for genetic testing, not directly measuring AFP levels. Choice C, endometriosis, is a medical condition involving abnormal tissue growth and is not a procedure for detecting fetal abnormalities. Therefore, the Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay is the most appropriate option for detecting neural tube defects such as spina bifida and certain chromosomal abnormalities.

2. A multiparous client at 36 hours postpartum reports increased bleeding and cramping. On examination, the nurse finds the uterine fundus 2 centimeters above the umbilicus. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the intravenous fluid to 150 ml/hr.
• B. Call the healthcare provider.
• C. Encourage the client to void.
• D. Administer ibuprofen 800 milligrams by mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to void is the priority action in this scenario. A distended bladder can prevent the uterus from contracting properly, leading to increased bleeding and a high uterine fundus. By encouraging the client to void, the nurse can help the uterus contract effectively, reducing bleeding. Increasing intravenous fluids or administering ibuprofen would not address the immediate concern of a distended bladder affecting uterine contraction. While it may be necessary to involve the healthcare provider, addressing the bladder distention promptly is crucial to prevent further complications.

3. When should the low-risk patient, who is 16 weeks pregnant, be advised to return to the prenatal clinic?

• A. 1 week.
• B. 2 weeks.
• C. 3 weeks.
• D. 4 weeks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 weeks. Low-risk pregnant patients typically have prenatal visits every 4 weeks until 28 weeks of gestation. This frequency allows for adequate monitoring of the pregnancy without being overly burdensome on the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the standard prenatal care schedule for low-risk pregnancies. Visits that are too frequent may cause unnecessary anxiety for the patient, while visits that are too infrequent may miss important opportunities for monitoring and intervention.

4. _________ is self-propulsion.

• A. Mitosis
• B. Meiosis
• C. Motility
• D. Mutation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Motility.' Motility refers to the ability of cells or organisms to move by themselves, often through the use of specialized structures like flagella or cilia. Mitosis (Choice A) and Meiosis (Choice B) are processes related to cell division and genetic recombination, respectively, not self-propulsion. Mutation (Choice D) refers to changes in the DNA sequence and is not related to self-propulsion.

5. Thalidomide was marketed in the 1960s as a treatment for:

• A. insomnia and nausea.
• B. infertility and impotence.
• C. Down syndrome.
• D. Turner syndrome.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thalidomide was initially marketed as a treatment for insomnia and nausea, particularly in pregnant women. However, it was later found to cause severe birth defects, leading to significant consequences. Choice B, infertility and impotence, is incorrect as thalidomide was not marketed for these conditions. Choices C and D, Down syndrome and Turner syndrome, are genetic conditions and not conditions for which thalidomide was intended as a treatment.

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