Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder whose onset is in middle age?

• A. Tay-Sachs disease
• B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
• C. Hemophilia
• D. Huntington’s disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Huntington's disease is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder characterized by progressive nerve cell degeneration in the brain. It typically manifests in middle age with symptoms such as involuntary movements, cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances. Tay-Sachs disease (Choice A) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the nervous system in early childhood, not middle age. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Choice B) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects muscle function and usually presents in early childhood. Hemophilia (Choice C) is a genetic disorder related to blood clotting, and its onset is not typically in middle age.

2. According to a study in 2013 by van Gameren-Oosterom, individuals with Down syndrome:

• A. are unlikely to die from cardiovascular problems by middle age.
• B. have no specific characteristic features.
• C. show deficits in cognitive development.
• D. are likely to have only 46 chromosomes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. According to a study in 2013 by van Gameren-Oosterom, individuals with Down syndrome often exhibit deficits in cognitive development. This is a common characteristic of Down syndrome, along with other health challenges. Choice A is incorrect because individuals with Down syndrome are at a higher risk of cardiovascular problems, contrary to being unlikely to die from them. Choice B is incorrect as Down syndrome is associated with specific characteristic features such as distinctive facial characteristics, making the statement that they have no specific features incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as individuals with Down syndrome have an extra copy of chromosome 21, resulting in a total of 47 chromosomes, not 46.

3. Dizygotic (DZ) twins share _________ percent of their genes.

• A. 100
• B. 75
• C. 50
• D. 25

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dizygotic (DZ) twins share approximately 50% of their genes. This is because dizygotic twins, also known as fraternal twins, originate from two separate fertilized eggs and share similar genetic similarity to regular siblings. Choice A (100%) is incorrect because if twins shared 100% of their genes, they would be identical twins (monozygotic). Choice B (75%) is incorrect as it is not the typical genetic similarity seen in dizygotic twins. Choice D (25%) is incorrect as it represents a significantly lower genetic similarity than what is observed in dizygotic twins.

4. A client has active genital herpes simplex virus type 2. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Metronidazole
• B. Penicillin
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Gentamicin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is the antiviral medication specifically used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, including genital herpes caused by herpes simplex virus type 2. Metronidazole (Choice A) is an antibiotic used for different types of infections, but not for viral infections like herpes. Penicillin (Choice B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not viruses like herpes. Gentamicin (Choice D) is an antibiotic mainly used to treat bacterial infections, not viral infections like herpes.

5. In contrast to placenta previa, what is the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae?

• A. Bleeding.
• B. Intense abdominal pain.
• C. Uterine activity.
• D. Cramping.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intense abdominal pain. Pain is absent with placenta previa but can be agonizing with abruptio placentae. While bleeding may be present in varying degrees for both placental conditions, intense abdominal pain is a distinguishing feature of abruptio placentae. Uterine activity and cramping may be present with both placental conditions, but they are not the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae.

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